AIBE Previous Year Questions: 50 Solved MCQs on BNS, BNSS, BSA

AIBE previous year questions are the best predictor of what the Bar Council of India will ask again: the same 19 subjects, the same 100-question open-book format, and the same habit of testing section numbers, time limits and leading cases. The 50 solved MCQs below follow the topics and style of past AIBE papers but are rewritten for the BNS, BNSS and BSA, which the official AIBE XXII syllabus now names alongside the IPC, CrPC and Evidence Act. Every answer is checked against the bare Act, the official syllabus or the judgment it relies on.

What past AIBE papers tell you about AIBE XXII

The Bar Council of India Trust released the AIBE XXII syllabus on 13 October 2026. Constitutional Law, CrPC/BNSS, CPC, IPC/BNS, Evidence/BSA, Family Law and the Contract-Property-Negotiable Instruments cluster account for 62 of the 100 marks, and most repeat questions come from these seven heads. The exam is on 29 November 2026 and registration closes on 27 October 2026 (BCI press release, 18 July 2026). For the full schedule, see the AIBE XXII 2026 exam date, syllabus and passing marks guide.

50 solved AIBE MCQs with explanations

Attempt each block with your bare Acts open, as you will on exam day, and note how long each section takes to find.

Constitutional Law (Q1 to Q5)

Q1. In Maneka Gandhi v Union of India (1978) the Supreme Court held that the “procedure established by law” under Article 21 must be:
(a) Any procedure enacted by Parliament (b) Fair, just and reasonable (c) Approved by the President (d) Identical to due process in the USA
Answer: (b). Article 21 was read with Articles 14 and 19.

Q2. The basic structure doctrine was laid down in Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala (1973) by a Bench of:
(a) 5 judges (b) 7 judges (c) 11 judges (d) 13 judges
Answer: (d). Parliament’s amending power under Article 368 cannot destroy the basic structure.

Q3. Under Article 226, a High Court may issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and:
(a) Only for Part III rights (b) For any other purpose (c) Only in service matters (d) Only against the State Government
Answer: (b). Article 32 is confined to fundamental rights.

Q4. The minimum age for membership of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) under Article 84(b) is:
(a) 21 years (b) 25 years (c) 30 years (d) 35 years
Answer: (c). It is 25 years for the House of the People.

Q5. The words “socialist” and “secular” were inserted in the Preamble by the:
(a) 24th Amendment, 1971 (b) 42nd Amendment, 1976 (c) 44th Amendment, 1978 (d) 86th Amendment, 2002
Answer: (b). A challenge to the insertion was dismissed in Dr Balram Singh v Union of India (2024).

IPC and Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (Q6 to Q9)

Q6. Which punishment has been newly added by Section 4 of the BNS, 2023?
(a) Transportation (b) Community service (c) Whipping (d) Forfeiture of citizenship
Answer: (b). Section 4(f); it applies, for example, to theft of property worth less than Rs 5,000.

Q7. Punishment for murder (old Section 302 IPC) is now found in:
(a) Section 100 BNS (b) Section 101 BNS (c) Section 103 BNS (d) Section 105 BNS
Answer: (c). Section 103(2) punishes murder by a group of five or more persons on grounds such as caste, language or personal belief.

Q8. The offence of sedition under Section 124A IPC has been replaced in the BNS by:
(a) Section 111, organised crime (b) Section 113, terrorist act (c) Section 152, acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India (d) Section 356, defamation
Answer: (c). The word sedition does not appear in the BNS.

Q9. Theft (old Section 378 IPC) and cheating (old Section 415 IPC) are defined in the BNS under:
(a) Sections 303 and 318 (b) Sections 304 and 319 (c) Sections 301 and 316 (d) Sections 309 and 320
Answer: (a). Section 304 is the new standalone offence of snatching.

CrPC and Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (Q10 to Q14)

Q10. Under Section 173 BNSS, information given by electronic communication must be signed by the informant within:
(a) 24 hours (b) 3 days (c) 7 days (d) 14 days
Answer: (b). The same section allows the zero FIR and a 14-day preliminary enquiry for offences punishable with 3 to 7 years.

Q11. Under Section 187 BNSS, police custody of up to 15 days may be authorised in whole or in parts within the first:
(a) 15 days only (b) 40 or 60 days (c) 60 or 90 days (d) 180 days
Answer: (b). The 15 days can be spread over the first 40 or 60 days of the 60 or 90 day period.

Q12. A first-time offender in custody as an undertrial must be released on bond under Section 479 BNSS after serving:
(a) One-tenth (b) One-fourth (c) One-third (d) One-half
Answer: (c). The general rule stays one-half; neither applies to offences punishable with death or life imprisonment.

Q13. Anticipatory bail (old Section 438 CrPC) is now provided under:
(a) Section 480 BNSS (b) Section 482 BNSS (c) Section 483 BNSS (d) Section 528 BNSS
Answer: (b). Section 528 saves the High Court’s inherent powers (old Section 482 CrPC), a favourite trap. See the Section 482 BNSS anticipatory bail guide.

Q14. Under Section 35(7) BNSS, prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police is needed to arrest a person who is infirm or above 60 years for an offence punishable with:
(a) Less than 3 years (b) Less than 7 years (c) Up to 10 years (d) Any offence
Answer: (a). Section 258 requires judgment within 30 days of arguments, extendable to 45.

Code of Civil Procedure (Q15 to Q19)

Q15. The rule of res judicata is contained in:
(a) Section 9 CPC (b) Section 10 CPC (c) Section 11 CPC (d) Section 12 CPC
Answer: (c). Section 10 is res sub judice.

Q16. A plaint may be rejected for not disclosing a cause of action under:
(a) Order VI Rule 17 (b) Order VII Rule 11 (c) Order VIII Rule 1 (d) Order IX Rule 13
Answer: (b). Saleem Bhai v State of Maharashtra (2002): the power can be exercised at any stage on the plaint alone.

Q17. Section 89 CPC permits reference of a dispute to all of the following except:
(a) Arbitration (b) Conciliation (c) Judicial settlement including Lok Adalat (d) Plea bargaining
Answer: (d). The fourth mode is mediation (Afcons Infrastructure v Cherian Varkey, 2010).

Q18. A second appeal under Section 100 CPC lies only on:
(a) A question of fact (b) A substantial question of law (c) A mixed question (d) Any ground of appeal
Answer: (b). The High Court must formulate the question at admission.

Q19. Which provision governs stay of a suit when the same matter is pending in a previously instituted suit?
(a) Section 10 (b) Section 11 (c) Section 151 (d) Order XXXIX
Answer: (a). Order XXXIX Rules 1 and 2 deal with temporary injunctions.

Evidence Act and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (Q20 to Q23)

Q20. The rule that no confession made to a police officer shall be proved against the accused (old Section 25 IEA) is in:
(a) Section 22 BSA (b) Section 23(1) BSA (c) Section 24 BSA (d) Section 26 BSA
Answer: (b). Section 23(2) covers police custody; its proviso preserves discovery statements (old Section 27).

Q21. Dying declarations (old Section 32(1) IEA) are now relevant under:
(a) Section 24 BSA (b) Section 26(a) BSA (c) Section 28 BSA (d) Section 32 BSA
Answer: (b). The old wording is retained.

Q22. The certificate for admissibility of electronic records (old Section 65B IEA) is now required under:
(a) Section 57 BSA (b) Section 61 BSA (c) Section 63(4) BSA (d) Section 65 BSA
Answer: (c). Section 61 bars denial of admissibility merely because a record is electronic.

Q23. How many sections does the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 contain?
(a) 167 (b) 170 (c) 358 (d) 531
Answer: (b). The BNS has 358 and the BNSS 531. Burden of proof is Section 104 BSA.

ADR and Arbitration (Q24 to Q25)

Q24. An application to set aside an arbitral award under Section 34(3) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 must be filed within:
(a) 30 days (b) 60 days (c) 3 months, extendable by 30 days (d) 1 year
Answer: (c). Section 29A requires the award within 12 months of completion of pleadings.

Q25. Under Section 21 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, an award of a Lok Adalat is:
(a) Appealable to the District Court (b) Deemed a decree of a civil court, final and binding (c) Advisory only (d) Subject to revision
Answer: (b). No appeal lies (K.N. Govindan Kutty Menon v C.D. Shaji, 2011).

Family Law (Q26 to Q29)

Q26. Under Section 13B(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the second motion for divorce by mutual consent is made not earlier than:
(a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) 12 months (d) 18 months
Answer: (b). And not later than 18 months from the petition.

Q27. The six-month waiting period under Section 13B(2) was held to be directory, not mandatory, in:
(a) Shayara Bano v Union of India (b) Amardeep Singh v Harveen Kaur (2017) (c) Vineeta Sharma v Rakesh Sharma (d) Danamma v Amar
Answer: (b). It can be waived where reconciliation has failed and alimony and custody are settled.

Q28. In Vineeta Sharma v Rakesh Sharma (2020) the Supreme Court held that a daughter’s coparcenary right under amended Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act:
(a) Arises only if the father was alive on 9 September 2005 (b) Is by birth, whether or not the father was alive on that date (c) Arises only after partition (d) Does not exist
Answer: (b). The right is an unobstructed heritage acquired by birth.

Q29. Triple talaq (talaq-e-biddat) was declared unconstitutional in:
(a) Shah Bano (1985) (b) Shayara Bano v Union of India (2017) (c) Danial Latifi (2001) (d) Sarla Mudgal (1995)
Answer: (b). Decided on 22 August 2017 by a five-judge Bench.

Public Interest Litigation (Q30 to Q31)

Q30. The right to speedy trial was read into Article 21 in the Hussainara Khatoon cases decided in:
(a) 1973 (b) 1979 (c) 1985 (d) 1997
Answer: (b). The Bihar undertrial cases are among the earliest PILs.

Q31. A PIL for enforcement of fundamental rights may be filed directly in the Supreme Court under:
(a) Article 32 (b) Article 136 (c) Article 142 (d) Article 226
Answer: (a). Article 226 is the High Court’s parallel jurisdiction.

Administrative Law (Q32)

Q32. The maxim “nemo judex in causa sua” embodies the rule against:
(a) Delay (b) Bias (c) Delegation (d) Retrospectivity
Answer: (b). Audi alteram partem, the other limb of natural justice, requires a fair hearing.

Professional Ethics (Q33 to Q34)

Q33. An appeal against an order of the disciplinary committee of the Bar Council of India lies to the Supreme Court under Section 38 of the Advocates Act, 1961 within:
(a) 30 days (b) 60 days (c) 90 days (d) 6 months
Answer: (b). Section 37 gives the same 60 days for appeals to the BCI.

Q34. Standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates are framed by the Bar Council of India under:
(a) Section 24 (b) Section 30 (c) Section 35 (d) Section 49(1)(c)
Answer: (d). Section 30 is the right to practise; Section 35 is misconduct.

Company Law (Q35)

Q35. Under Section 3(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, the minimum number of persons to form a public company is:
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 7
Answer: (d). Two for a private company and one for a One Person Company.

Environmental Law (Q36)

Q36. Under Section 20 of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, the Tribunal must apply:
(a) Only the precautionary principle (b) Sustainable development, the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle (c) Strict liability only (d) Res judicata
Answer: (b). Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum (1996) made these part of Indian law; appeals from the NGT go to the Supreme Court within 90 days (Section 22).

Cyber Law (Q37)

Q37. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 was struck down as unconstitutional in:
(a) Shreya Singhal v Union of India (2015) (b) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (2017) (c) Anuradha Bhasin (2020) (d) Navtej Johar (2018)
Answer: (a). Decided 24 March 2015: vague and outside the Article 19(2) grounds.

Labour and Industrial Law (Q38 to Q39)

Q38. The four labour codes came into force across India on:
(a) 1 April 2021 (b) 1 July 2024 (c) 21 November 2025 (d) 1 April 2026
Answer: (c). The Code on Wages, 2019 repeals the Payment of Wages, Minimum Wages, Payment of Bonus and Equal Remuneration Acts (Section 69).

Q39. Under Section 28 of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, standing orders apply to industrial establishments employing at least:
(a) 50 workers (b) 100 workers (c) 300 workers (d) 500 workers
Answer: (c). The earlier threshold was 100.

Tort, Motor Vehicles and Consumer Protection (Q40 to Q42)

Q40. The “neighbour principle” of duty of care in negligence was laid down in:
(a) Rylands v Fletcher (b) Donoghue v Stevenson (1932) (c) Ashby v White (d) Bird v Jones
Answer: (b). Rylands v Fletcher is the rule of strict liability.

Q41. Under Section 164 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (as amended in 2019), the fixed compensation payable for death is:
(a) Rs 50,000 (b) Rs 2 lakh (c) Rs 5 lakh (d) Rs 10 lakh
Answer: (c). Rs 2.5 lakh for grievous hurt; hit-and-run (Section 161) is Rs 2 lakh and Rs 50,000.

Q42. Under the 2021 Rules framed under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the District Commission hears complaints where the value of goods or services paid does not exceed:
(a) Rs 20 lakh (b) Rs 50 lakh (c) Rs 1 crore (d) Rs 2 crore
Answer: (b). State Commission: above Rs 50 lakh up to Rs 2 crore; National Commission: above Rs 2 crore.

Taxation (Q43 to Q44)

Q43. The Income-tax Act, 2025, which replaces the 1961 Act, comes into force on:
(a) 1 April 2025 (b) 21 August 2025 (c) 1 April 2026 (d) 1 April 2027
Answer: (c). Assented on 21 August 2025; it replaces previous year and assessment year with a single “tax year”.

Q44. The GST Council is constituted under which Article, inserted by the Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016?
(a) Article 246A (b) Article 269A (c) Article 279A (d) Article 366
Answer: (c). GST was rolled out on 1 July 2017.

Contract, Specific Relief, Property and Negotiable Instruments (Q45 to Q48)

Q45. In Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose (1903) the Privy Council held that a minor’s agreement is:
(a) Voidable at the minor’s option (b) Void ab initio (c) Valid if beneficial (d) Enforceable on attaining majority
Answer: (b). Section 11 of the Contract Act excludes minors from competence.

Q46. Under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, after receiving the demand notice the drawer must pay within:
(a) 7 days (b) 15 days (c) 30 days (d) 3 months
Answer: (b). Presentation: 3 months; notice: 30 days of the bank memo. The Section 138 cheque bounce notice guide walks through each step.

Q47. Under Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, sale of tangible immovable property of the value of Rs 100 and upwards can be made only by:
(a) Delivery of possession (b) A registered instrument (c) An agreement to sell (d) A general power of attorney
Answer: (b). Suraj Lamp and Industries v State of Haryana (2011): GPA sales do not transfer title.

Q48. The maximum punishment under Section 138 of the NI Act is imprisonment up to:
(a) 6 months (b) 1 year (c) 2 years (d) 3 years
Answer: (c). Or fine up to twice the cheque amount, or both.

Land Acquisition (Q49)

Q49. Under Section 2(2) of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, acquisition for a private company needs prior consent of at least:
(a) 50 per cent of affected families (b) 70 per cent (c) 80 per cent (d) 100 per cent
Answer: (c). It is 70 per cent for public private partnership projects.

Intellectual Property (Q50)

Q50. Under Section 53 of the Patents Act, 1970, the term of a patent is:
(a) 10 years from grant (b) 14 years from filing (c) 20 years from the date of filing (d) 60 years
Answer: (c). Trade mark registration runs for 10 years, renewable.

Old to new section map used in this set

For the complete mapping, keep the IPC to BNS section converter open while you solve.

How to use this set before 29 November

Treat these 50 questions as a diagnostic. Past AIBE papers rarely repeat a question word for word, but they repeat the provision: the same cooling-off period, the same appeal window, the same renumbered section. Solve the set once without notes, then again with your bare Acts, tabbing every section you had to search for; candidates usually run out of time, not knowledge.

• Score yourself out of 50 and double it; recent pass marks were 45 (General and OBC) and 40 (SC, ST and specially abled) before moderation.
• Tab the BNS, BNSS and BSA at the sections in the mapping table above.
• Write old and new section numbers side by side, since the syllabus still names the IPC, CrPC and Evidence Act.
• Keep every time limit met here (3, 14, 15, 30 and 60 days; 3 and 6 months) on one sheet.
• Take one timed 100-question mock a week and re-attempt your wrong answers after each.

FAQs

Are these the actual previous year AIBE questions?

No. They follow the subjects, style and difficulty of past papers but are freshly drafted, with criminal law updated to the BNS, BNSS and BSA. Answer keys for completed exams are published on allindiabarexamination.com; attempt at least two of those papers in full as well.

Will AIBE XXII ask from the IPC or from the BNS?

The official syllabus lists both, for example “I.P.C. (Indian Penal Code) and (New) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita” with 8 questions. Carry bare Acts of both.

Is AIBE open book?

Yes. Bare Acts without notes are permitted; check the admit card instructions for the exact list of permitted material.

How many questions must I get right to pass AIBE XXII?

Recent cycles fixed 45 out of 100 for General and OBC candidates and 40 for SC, ST and specially abled candidates. The AIBE XXI cut-off was lowered by three marks after moderation, but do not plan around a reduction.

Which subjects should I prioritise with limited time?

The seven heads named above carry 62 marks. Cover them first, then the 2 to 4 mark subjects.

Practise under exam conditions

Fifty questions show where you stand; full-length practice moves the score. The AIBE XXII mock tests are 100-question papers on the official 19-subject weightage with explanations keyed to the new codes; browse the other exam packs if you are also preparing for a judiciary or NET paper.

Sources

• Bar Council of India Trust, Syllabus for All India Bar Exam XXII (13 October 2026)
• BCI press release of 18 July 2026 on AIBE XXI result and AIBE XXII schedule (SCC Online)
• Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (India Code)
• Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (India Code)
• Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (India Code)
• PRS Legislative Research, BNSS key features
• LiveLaw, FIR registration under Section 173 BNSS
• Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (India Code)
• Afcons Infrastructure v Cherian Varkey (SC, 2010)
• Saleem Bhai v State of Maharashtra (SC, 2002)
• Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 (India Code)
• K.N. Govindan Kutty Menon v C.D. Shaji (SC, 2011)
• Supreme Court judgment of 11 December 2021 on Section 13B HMA and Amardeep Singh
• Vineeta Sharma v Rakesh Sharma (SC, 2020)
• Dr Balram Singh v Union of India (SC, 2024)
• Article 84, Constitution of India (CLPR)
• Shreya Singhal v Union of India (SC, 2015)
• Advocates Act, 1961 (India Code)
• National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 (India Code)
• Birendra Prasad Sah v State of Bihar (SC, 2019), reproducing Section 138 NI Act
• Consumer Protection (Jurisdiction) Rules, 2021
• Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, 2019 (PRS)
• Income-tax Act, 2025
• Rajya Sabha answer on implementation of the labour codes
• Code on Wages, 2019 (India Code)
• Industrial Relations Code, 2020 (India Code)
• Section 53, Patents Act, 1970 (IP India)
• CBIC, GST: An Update