Author: Lexfolio Team

AIBE XXII is on 29 November 2026, which leaves about five weeks. That is enough to pass comfortably if you spend the time on the subjects that carry the most questions and on timed practice with your Bare Acts. You need 45 percent (General and OBC) or 40 percent (SC, ST and specially abled), there is no negative marking, and the paper is 100 questions in 3 hours 30 minutes. This plan is built around those three facts.

The strategy in three lines

• Cover the big subjects first. Constitutional Law, the criminal laws, Civil Procedure, Professional Ethics and Contract carry a large share of the paper.
• Practise with your Bare Acts open. The advantage only exists if you can find a section in under a minute.
• Answer everything. With no negative marking, a blank answer is a lost mark.

Week 1 (25 to 31 October): settle admin and diagnose

• Finish registration and payment (fee deadline 28 October, corrections till 30 October). Read the admit card guide for what to check.
• Collect your Bare Acts. Use the subject-wise Bare Acts list.
• Sit one full mock under real timing. Do not prepare for it. Its only job is to show you where you stand.
• Sort the 19 subjects into three groups from that result: strong, weak but heavy, and weak but light.

Week 2 (1 to 7 November): the heavy subjects

• Constitutional Law: Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, writs, Parliament and the judiciary, emergency provisions.
• Criminal Law: general exceptions, offences against the body and property under the BNS, and the key changes from the IPC.
• Criminal Procedure: arrest, bail, FIR, charge, trial stages under the BNSS.
• Do 40 to 50 topic questions each day and look up every wrong answer in your Bare Act.

Week 3 (8 to 14 November): the second tier

• Civil Procedure: jurisdiction, res judicata, pleadings, execution, appeals and limitation basics.
• Evidence under the BSA: relevancy, admissions, confessions, burden of proof, electronic records.
• Professional Ethics: duties of advocates under the BCI Rules and the disciplinary process under the Advocates Act. This subject is short and scores well; do not skip it.
• Contract and Property: offer and acceptance, consideration, void and voidable agreements, transfer and its key sections.
• Sit full mock number two at the end of the week. Download your admit card on 14 November.

Week 4 (15 to 21 November): light subjects and speed

• Cover Family Law, ADR, Company Law, Consumer and Motor Vehicles, Labour, Cyber, Environmental, Administrative, IPR, Taxation and Land Acquisition at a summary level. Aim for the definitions, landmark cases and the handful of sections that are asked repeatedly.
• Sit full mock number three. Track how many minutes you spent looking things up.
• Daily Bare Act drill: find five random sections against the clock.

Week 5 (22 to 27 November): mocks and revision only

• Two more full mocks, on alternate days, at the same time of day as the real exam.
• Between mocks, revise only from your own list of wrong answers. No new topics.
• Visit or map your exam centre.

The last 48 hours (28 and 29 November)

• Light revision of Professional Ethics and the Constitution, nothing heavy.
• Pack the night before: printed admit card, photo ID, pens, clean Bare Acts.
• Sleep properly. In the hall, do a first pass answering everything you know, a second pass with Bare Acts for the rest, and a final pass to make sure no question is left blank.

How to use the time in the exam hall

Five full papers, ready to sit

This plan needs five full mocks. Lexfolio’s AIBE XXII mock tests give exactly that: five papers, 500 questions, with explanations that cite the section so you can practise your Bare Act lookups. The complete pack adds 300 topic MCQs for weeks 2 to 4 and a guide to the new criminal laws. For dates, syllabus and passing marks, see the AIBE XXII complete guide.

Sources

• Bar Council of India, AIBE XXII schedule announced 18 July 2026
• AIBE Examination Guidelines, official AIBE portal

Last checked: 24 October 2026.

The AIBE XXII admit card will be available from 14 November 2026 on the official AIBE portal, fifteen days before the examination on 29 November 2026, according to the schedule announced by the Bar Council of India. You will not be allowed into the centre without a printed copy and a valid photo ID. Whether you get an admit card at all is decided this week, by the fee and correction deadlines below.

Dates that decide your admit card

The BCI calls these dates tentative. Extensions do happen, but plan as if each date is final.

Do these three things before 30 October

1. Confirm the payment went through. An application with an incomplete payment does not generate an admit card. If money left your account but the portal still shows payment pending, raise it with the AIBE helpdesk now, not on 14 November.
2. Check your details in the form. Name, father’s or mother’s name, date of birth, photograph, signature, exam centre city and language. After the correction window closes, these lock and carry through to the admit card.
3. Save your login. Write down your registration number and password somewhere safe. Most admit card day problems are forgotten credentials.

How to download the AIBE XXII admit card

1. Open the official AIBE portal, allindiabarexamination.com.
2. Go to the AIBE XXII section and log in with your registration credentials.
3. Open the admit card link and download the PDF.
4. Print it on plain A4 paper. Keep at least two printouts and the PDF on your phone as a backup (the phone itself cannot enter the hall).

Expect the portal to be slow on the first day. If it does not load, try again early morning or late night rather than repeatedly refreshing at peak hours.

What to check on the admit card

• Your name, photograph and signature
• Roll number
• Exam centre address (visit or map it before exam day)
• Reporting time and gate closing time
• Language of the question paper you chose
• The instructions printed on it, including what material is permitted

Where anything on this page differs from your admit card, the admit card governs.

If something goes wrong

I can log in but no admit card appears

The most common reason is an incomplete payment. Check your payment status in the portal and keep your bank reference ready when you contact the helpdesk.

There is a mistake in my name or photo

Contact the AIBE helpdesk immediately with proof. Small spelling differences are usually resolved by carrying a government ID that matches your registration, but do not leave it to exam day.

I forgot my password

Use the portal’s password recovery with your registered mobile number or email.

What to carry on 29 November

• Printed admit card
• Original photo ID
• Pens as instructed
• Bare Acts without notes or comments (see which Bare Acts to carry)

Phones, smart watches, bags, books and notes are not allowed. Leave them at home or arrange for someone to hold them outside the centre.

Use the next 15 days well

Once the admit card is out, the only thing left that moves your score is timed practice. Sit at least three full papers in the 3 hour 30 minute format with your Bare Acts on the desk. Lexfolio’s AIBE XXII mock tests give you five complete papers with explanations, and the AIBE XXII complete pack adds 300 practice MCQs and a new criminal laws guide. For a day-by-day plan, read the AIBE XXII last month study plan.

Sources

• Bar Council of India, AIBE XXII schedule announced 18 July 2026
• Official AIBE portal, allindiabarexamination.com

Last checked: 24 October 2026.

For AIBE XXII on 29 November 2026 you can carry printed Bare Acts that contain only the text of the law, without notes, comments or commentary. Everything else, including guides, handwritten notes and annotated editions, stays outside the hall. The rule has been in force since AIBE XVI in 2021, when the Bar Council of India notified that no books, notes or study material would be allowed and that candidates could carry only Bare Acts without notes. This guide tells you exactly which Acts to pack for each of the 19 subjects and how to avoid losing them at the gate.

The rule in one line

Plain Bare Acts in, everything else out. The BCI does not cap the number of Bare Acts, so the limit is practical: how much you can carry and how fast you can find a section in a 3.5 hour paper with 100 questions.

What is allowed and what is not

The grey zone: highlighting, tabs and photocopies

This is where most confiscations happen. Different coaching sources say different things about highlighting, sticky tabs and photocopied Acts, because the decision is made by the invigilator at your centre, not by a fixed list. The safe course is simple:

• Carry clean, published editions. Do not write in them.
• Do not stick paper tabs or flags. If you want speed, learn the page ranges instead (see the drill below).
• Avoid photocopies and printouts where you can. A bound publisher’s edition is the hardest copy to object to.
• Check the cover. Editions marked “with short notes” or “with comments” are the ones most often refused.

When the AIBE XXII examination guidelines are released with the admit card on 14 November 2026, read the permitted-material clause once more. If it differs from this page, the official guideline governs.

Subject-wise list: which Bare Acts to carry

AIBE tests 19 subjects. You do not need a separate book for every one of them. Carry the Acts where section numbers and exact wording decide the answer, and rely on memory for subjects that are mostly concepts.

Old codes or new Sanhitas?

Questions in recent papers have used the new criminal laws, and some still refer to the IPC, CrPC and Evidence Act by their old section numbers. If you can, carry editions of the BNS, BNSS and BSA that print the corresponding old section alongside the new one as part of the published text. Do not carry a separate printed comparison chart: a loose chart looks like notes and is likely to be taken away.

The 10-minute drill that makes Bare Acts useful

A Bare Act helps only if you can reach a section in under a minute. Most candidates cannot, which is why the open-book advantage is smaller than it looks. From now until the exam, do this once a day:

1. Pick five sections at random from a mock test explanation.
2. Time yourself finding each one in your exam copy, without any tabs.
3. Note the rough page range of every Part or Chapter you keep returning to.
4. By exam day you should know, for example, roughly where Fundamental Rights, the Directive Principles and the emergency provisions sit in your copy of the Constitution.

Then set a rule for the paper itself: if a question would take more than a minute of searching, mark your best answer and move on. There is no negative marking in AIBE, so no question should be left blank.

Packing checklist for 29 November

• Printed admit card (released 14 November 2026)
• Original photo ID
• Pens as instructed on the admit card
• Bare Acts from the must-carry and high rows above, clean and unmarked
• Nothing else: leave your phone, watch and bag outside the centre

FAQs

Is AIBE still an open-book exam?

Partly. Since AIBE XVI the BCI allows only Bare Acts without notes. Books, guides and notes are no longer permitted, so it is better described as a Bare Act-permitted exam.

How many Bare Acts can I carry?

There is no fixed number. Carry what you can use quickly; the must-carry list above is enough for most of the paper.

Can I carry a Bare Act with short notes?

Do not risk it. Notes and comments are what the rule excludes, and such editions are the ones most often refused at the gate.

Can I underline or highlight sections?

Sources disagree and the invigilator decides. Clean copies are the only option that carries no risk.

Practise with your Bare Acts open

The fastest way to learn your Bare Acts is to sit a timed paper with them on the desk. Lexfolio’s AIBE XXII mock tests give five full papers with explanations that cite the exact section, so every wrong answer becomes a lookup drill. For dates, syllabus and passing marks, see the AIBE XXII 2026 complete guide, and for practice questions from earlier papers, try the 50 solved AIBE previous year MCQs.

Sources

• Bar Council of India, AIBE XXII schedule announced 18 July 2026 (exam on 29 November 2026; admit card from 14 November 2026)
• Bar Council of India notification for AIBE XVI (2021) restricting permitted material to Bare Acts without notes
• AIBE Examination Guidelines for AIBE XXI, official AIBE portal

Last checked: 24 October 2026.

AIBE previous year questions are the best predictor of what the Bar Council of India will ask again: the same 19 subjects, the same 100-question open-book format, and the same habit of testing section numbers, time limits and leading cases. The 50 solved MCQs below follow the topics and style of past AIBE papers but are rewritten for the BNS, BNSS and BSA, which the official AIBE XXII syllabus now names alongside the IPC, CrPC and Evidence Act. Every answer is checked against the bare Act, the official syllabus or the judgment it relies on.

What past AIBE papers tell you about AIBE XXII

The Bar Council of India Trust released the AIBE XXII syllabus on 13 October 2026. Constitutional Law, CrPC/BNSS, CPC, IPC/BNS, Evidence/BSA, Family Law and the Contract-Property-Negotiable Instruments cluster account for 62 of the 100 marks, and most repeat questions come from these seven heads. The exam is on 29 November 2026 and registration closes on 27 October 2026 (BCI press release, 18 July 2026). For the full schedule, see the AIBE XXII 2026 exam date, syllabus and passing marks guide.

50 solved AIBE MCQs with explanations

Attempt each block with your bare Acts open, as you will on exam day, and note how long each section takes to find.

Constitutional Law (Q1 to Q5)

Q1. In Maneka Gandhi v Union of India (1978) the Supreme Court held that the “procedure established by law” under Article 21 must be:
(a) Any procedure enacted by Parliament (b) Fair, just and reasonable (c) Approved by the President (d) Identical to due process in the USA
Answer: (b). Article 21 was read with Articles 14 and 19.

Q2. The basic structure doctrine was laid down in Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala (1973) by a Bench of:
(a) 5 judges (b) 7 judges (c) 11 judges (d) 13 judges
Answer: (d). Parliament’s amending power under Article 368 cannot destroy the basic structure.

Q3. Under Article 226, a High Court may issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and:
(a) Only for Part III rights (b) For any other purpose (c) Only in service matters (d) Only against the State Government
Answer: (b). Article 32 is confined to fundamental rights.

Q4. The minimum age for membership of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) under Article 84(b) is:
(a) 21 years (b) 25 years (c) 30 years (d) 35 years
Answer: (c). It is 25 years for the House of the People.

Q5. The words “socialist” and “secular” were inserted in the Preamble by the:
(a) 24th Amendment, 1971 (b) 42nd Amendment, 1976 (c) 44th Amendment, 1978 (d) 86th Amendment, 2002
Answer: (b). A challenge to the insertion was dismissed in Dr Balram Singh v Union of India (2024).

IPC and Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (Q6 to Q9)

Q6. Which punishment has been newly added by Section 4 of the BNS, 2023?
(a) Transportation (b) Community service (c) Whipping (d) Forfeiture of citizenship
Answer: (b). Section 4(f); it applies, for example, to theft of property worth less than Rs 5,000.

Q7. Punishment for murder (old Section 302 IPC) is now found in:
(a) Section 100 BNS (b) Section 101 BNS (c) Section 103 BNS (d) Section 105 BNS
Answer: (c). Section 103(2) punishes murder by a group of five or more persons on grounds such as caste, language or personal belief.

Q8. The offence of sedition under Section 124A IPC has been replaced in the BNS by:
(a) Section 111, organised crime (b) Section 113, terrorist act (c) Section 152, acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India (d) Section 356, defamation
Answer: (c). The word sedition does not appear in the BNS.

Q9. Theft (old Section 378 IPC) and cheating (old Section 415 IPC) are defined in the BNS under:
(a) Sections 303 and 318 (b) Sections 304 and 319 (c) Sections 301 and 316 (d) Sections 309 and 320
Answer: (a). Section 304 is the new standalone offence of snatching.

CrPC and Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (Q10 to Q14)

Q10. Under Section 173 BNSS, information given by electronic communication must be signed by the informant within:
(a) 24 hours (b) 3 days (c) 7 days (d) 14 days
Answer: (b). The same section allows the zero FIR and a 14-day preliminary enquiry for offences punishable with 3 to 7 years.

Q11. Under Section 187 BNSS, police custody of up to 15 days may be authorised in whole or in parts within the first:
(a) 15 days only (b) 40 or 60 days (c) 60 or 90 days (d) 180 days
Answer: (b). The 15 days can be spread over the first 40 or 60 days of the 60 or 90 day period.

Q12. A first-time offender in custody as an undertrial must be released on bond under Section 479 BNSS after serving:
(a) One-tenth (b) One-fourth (c) One-third (d) One-half
Answer: (c). The general rule stays one-half; neither applies to offences punishable with death or life imprisonment.

Q13. Anticipatory bail (old Section 438 CrPC) is now provided under:
(a) Section 480 BNSS (b) Section 482 BNSS (c) Section 483 BNSS (d) Section 528 BNSS
Answer: (b). Section 528 saves the High Court’s inherent powers (old Section 482 CrPC), a favourite trap. See the Section 482 BNSS anticipatory bail guide.

Q14. Under Section 35(7) BNSS, prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police is needed to arrest a person who is infirm or above 60 years for an offence punishable with:
(a) Less than 3 years (b) Less than 7 years (c) Up to 10 years (d) Any offence
Answer: (a). Section 258 requires judgment within 30 days of arguments, extendable to 45.

Code of Civil Procedure (Q15 to Q19)

Q15. The rule of res judicata is contained in:
(a) Section 9 CPC (b) Section 10 CPC (c) Section 11 CPC (d) Section 12 CPC
Answer: (c). Section 10 is res sub judice.

Q16. A plaint may be rejected for not disclosing a cause of action under:
(a) Order VI Rule 17 (b) Order VII Rule 11 (c) Order VIII Rule 1 (d) Order IX Rule 13
Answer: (b). Saleem Bhai v State of Maharashtra (2002): the power can be exercised at any stage on the plaint alone.

Q17. Section 89 CPC permits reference of a dispute to all of the following except:
(a) Arbitration (b) Conciliation (c) Judicial settlement including Lok Adalat (d) Plea bargaining
Answer: (d). The fourth mode is mediation (Afcons Infrastructure v Cherian Varkey, 2010).

Q18. A second appeal under Section 100 CPC lies only on:
(a) A question of fact (b) A substantial question of law (c) A mixed question (d) Any ground of appeal
Answer: (b). The High Court must formulate the question at admission.

Q19. Which provision governs stay of a suit when the same matter is pending in a previously instituted suit?
(a) Section 10 (b) Section 11 (c) Section 151 (d) Order XXXIX
Answer: (a). Order XXXIX Rules 1 and 2 deal with temporary injunctions.

Evidence Act and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (Q20 to Q23)

Q20. The rule that no confession made to a police officer shall be proved against the accused (old Section 25 IEA) is in:
(a) Section 22 BSA (b) Section 23(1) BSA (c) Section 24 BSA (d) Section 26 BSA
Answer: (b). Section 23(2) covers police custody; its proviso preserves discovery statements (old Section 27).

Q21. Dying declarations (old Section 32(1) IEA) are now relevant under:
(a) Section 24 BSA (b) Section 26(a) BSA (c) Section 28 BSA (d) Section 32 BSA
Answer: (b). The old wording is retained.

Q22. The certificate for admissibility of electronic records (old Section 65B IEA) is now required under:
(a) Section 57 BSA (b) Section 61 BSA (c) Section 63(4) BSA (d) Section 65 BSA
Answer: (c). Section 61 bars denial of admissibility merely because a record is electronic.

Q23. How many sections does the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 contain?
(a) 167 (b) 170 (c) 358 (d) 531
Answer: (b). The BNS has 358 and the BNSS 531. Burden of proof is Section 104 BSA.

ADR and Arbitration (Q24 to Q25)

Q24. An application to set aside an arbitral award under Section 34(3) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 must be filed within:
(a) 30 days (b) 60 days (c) 3 months, extendable by 30 days (d) 1 year
Answer: (c). Section 29A requires the award within 12 months of completion of pleadings.

Q25. Under Section 21 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, an award of a Lok Adalat is:
(a) Appealable to the District Court (b) Deemed a decree of a civil court, final and binding (c) Advisory only (d) Subject to revision
Answer: (b). No appeal lies (K.N. Govindan Kutty Menon v C.D. Shaji, 2011).

Family Law (Q26 to Q29)

Q26. Under Section 13B(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the second motion for divorce by mutual consent is made not earlier than:
(a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) 12 months (d) 18 months
Answer: (b). And not later than 18 months from the petition.

Q27. The six-month waiting period under Section 13B(2) was held to be directory, not mandatory, in:
(a) Shayara Bano v Union of India (b) Amardeep Singh v Harveen Kaur (2017) (c) Vineeta Sharma v Rakesh Sharma (d) Danamma v Amar
Answer: (b). It can be waived where reconciliation has failed and alimony and custody are settled.

Q28. In Vineeta Sharma v Rakesh Sharma (2020) the Supreme Court held that a daughter’s coparcenary right under amended Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act:
(a) Arises only if the father was alive on 9 September 2005 (b) Is by birth, whether or not the father was alive on that date (c) Arises only after partition (d) Does not exist
Answer: (b). The right is an unobstructed heritage acquired by birth.

Q29. Triple talaq (talaq-e-biddat) was declared unconstitutional in:
(a) Shah Bano (1985) (b) Shayara Bano v Union of India (2017) (c) Danial Latifi (2001) (d) Sarla Mudgal (1995)
Answer: (b). Decided on 22 August 2017 by a five-judge Bench.

Public Interest Litigation (Q30 to Q31)

Q30. The right to speedy trial was read into Article 21 in the Hussainara Khatoon cases decided in:
(a) 1973 (b) 1979 (c) 1985 (d) 1997
Answer: (b). The Bihar undertrial cases are among the earliest PILs.

Q31. A PIL for enforcement of fundamental rights may be filed directly in the Supreme Court under:
(a) Article 32 (b) Article 136 (c) Article 142 (d) Article 226
Answer: (a). Article 226 is the High Court’s parallel jurisdiction.

Administrative Law (Q32)

Q32. The maxim “nemo judex in causa sua” embodies the rule against:
(a) Delay (b) Bias (c) Delegation (d) Retrospectivity
Answer: (b). Audi alteram partem, the other limb of natural justice, requires a fair hearing.

Professional Ethics (Q33 to Q34)

Q33. An appeal against an order of the disciplinary committee of the Bar Council of India lies to the Supreme Court under Section 38 of the Advocates Act, 1961 within:
(a) 30 days (b) 60 days (c) 90 days (d) 6 months
Answer: (b). Section 37 gives the same 60 days for appeals to the BCI.

Q34. Standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates are framed by the Bar Council of India under:
(a) Section 24 (b) Section 30 (c) Section 35 (d) Section 49(1)(c)
Answer: (d). Section 30 is the right to practise; Section 35 is misconduct.

Company Law (Q35)

Q35. Under Section 3(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, the minimum number of persons to form a public company is:
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 7
Answer: (d). Two for a private company and one for a One Person Company.

Environmental Law (Q36)

Q36. Under Section 20 of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, the Tribunal must apply:
(a) Only the precautionary principle (b) Sustainable development, the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle (c) Strict liability only (d) Res judicata
Answer: (b). Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum (1996) made these part of Indian law; appeals from the NGT go to the Supreme Court within 90 days (Section 22).

Cyber Law (Q37)

Q37. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 was struck down as unconstitutional in:
(a) Shreya Singhal v Union of India (2015) (b) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (2017) (c) Anuradha Bhasin (2020) (d) Navtej Johar (2018)
Answer: (a). Decided 24 March 2015: vague and outside the Article 19(2) grounds.

Labour and Industrial Law (Q38 to Q39)

Q38. The four labour codes came into force across India on:
(a) 1 April 2021 (b) 1 July 2024 (c) 21 November 2025 (d) 1 April 2026
Answer: (c). The Code on Wages, 2019 repeals the Payment of Wages, Minimum Wages, Payment of Bonus and Equal Remuneration Acts (Section 69).

Q39. Under Section 28 of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, standing orders apply to industrial establishments employing at least:
(a) 50 workers (b) 100 workers (c) 300 workers (d) 500 workers
Answer: (c). The earlier threshold was 100.

Tort, Motor Vehicles and Consumer Protection (Q40 to Q42)

Q40. The “neighbour principle” of duty of care in negligence was laid down in:
(a) Rylands v Fletcher (b) Donoghue v Stevenson (1932) (c) Ashby v White (d) Bird v Jones
Answer: (b). Rylands v Fletcher is the rule of strict liability.

Q41. Under Section 164 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (as amended in 2019), the fixed compensation payable for death is:
(a) Rs 50,000 (b) Rs 2 lakh (c) Rs 5 lakh (d) Rs 10 lakh
Answer: (c). Rs 2.5 lakh for grievous hurt; hit-and-run (Section 161) is Rs 2 lakh and Rs 50,000.

Q42. Under the 2021 Rules framed under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the District Commission hears complaints where the value of goods or services paid does not exceed:
(a) Rs 20 lakh (b) Rs 50 lakh (c) Rs 1 crore (d) Rs 2 crore
Answer: (b). State Commission: above Rs 50 lakh up to Rs 2 crore; National Commission: above Rs 2 crore.

Taxation (Q43 to Q44)

Q43. The Income-tax Act, 2025, which replaces the 1961 Act, comes into force on:
(a) 1 April 2025 (b) 21 August 2025 (c) 1 April 2026 (d) 1 April 2027
Answer: (c). Assented on 21 August 2025; it replaces previous year and assessment year with a single “tax year”.

Q44. The GST Council is constituted under which Article, inserted by the Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016?
(a) Article 246A (b) Article 269A (c) Article 279A (d) Article 366
Answer: (c). GST was rolled out on 1 July 2017.

Contract, Specific Relief, Property and Negotiable Instruments (Q45 to Q48)

Q45. In Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose (1903) the Privy Council held that a minor’s agreement is:
(a) Voidable at the minor’s option (b) Void ab initio (c) Valid if beneficial (d) Enforceable on attaining majority
Answer: (b). Section 11 of the Contract Act excludes minors from competence.

Q46. Under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, after receiving the demand notice the drawer must pay within:
(a) 7 days (b) 15 days (c) 30 days (d) 3 months
Answer: (b). Presentation: 3 months; notice: 30 days of the bank memo. The Section 138 cheque bounce notice guide walks through each step.

Q47. Under Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, sale of tangible immovable property of the value of Rs 100 and upwards can be made only by:
(a) Delivery of possession (b) A registered instrument (c) An agreement to sell (d) A general power of attorney
Answer: (b). Suraj Lamp and Industries v State of Haryana (2011): GPA sales do not transfer title.

Q48. The maximum punishment under Section 138 of the NI Act is imprisonment up to:
(a) 6 months (b) 1 year (c) 2 years (d) 3 years
Answer: (c). Or fine up to twice the cheque amount, or both.

Land Acquisition (Q49)

Q49. Under Section 2(2) of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, acquisition for a private company needs prior consent of at least:
(a) 50 per cent of affected families (b) 70 per cent (c) 80 per cent (d) 100 per cent
Answer: (c). It is 70 per cent for public private partnership projects.

Intellectual Property (Q50)

Q50. Under Section 53 of the Patents Act, 1970, the term of a patent is:
(a) 10 years from grant (b) 14 years from filing (c) 20 years from the date of filing (d) 60 years
Answer: (c). Trade mark registration runs for 10 years, renewable.

Old to new section map used in this set

For the complete mapping, keep the IPC to BNS section converter open while you solve.

How to use this set before 29 November

Treat these 50 questions as a diagnostic. Past AIBE papers rarely repeat a question word for word, but they repeat the provision: the same cooling-off period, the same appeal window, the same renumbered section. Solve the set once without notes, then again with your bare Acts, tabbing every section you had to search for; candidates usually run out of time, not knowledge.

• Score yourself out of 50 and double it; recent pass marks were 45 (General and OBC) and 40 (SC, ST and specially abled) before moderation.
• Tab the BNS, BNSS and BSA at the sections in the mapping table above.
• Write old and new section numbers side by side, since the syllabus still names the IPC, CrPC and Evidence Act.
• Keep every time limit met here (3, 14, 15, 30 and 60 days; 3 and 6 months) on one sheet.
• Take one timed 100-question mock a week and re-attempt your wrong answers after each.

FAQs

Are these the actual previous year AIBE questions?

No. They follow the subjects, style and difficulty of past papers but are freshly drafted, with criminal law updated to the BNS, BNSS and BSA. Answer keys for completed exams are published on allindiabarexamination.com; attempt at least two of those papers in full as well.

Will AIBE XXII ask from the IPC or from the BNS?

The official syllabus lists both, for example “I.P.C. (Indian Penal Code) and (New) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita” with 8 questions. Carry bare Acts of both.

Is AIBE open book?

Yes. Bare Acts without notes are permitted; check the admit card instructions for the exact list of permitted material.

How many questions must I get right to pass AIBE XXII?

Recent cycles fixed 45 out of 100 for General and OBC candidates and 40 for SC, ST and specially abled candidates. The AIBE XXI cut-off was lowered by three marks after moderation, but do not plan around a reduction.

Which subjects should I prioritise with limited time?

The seven heads named above carry 62 marks. Cover them first, then the 2 to 4 mark subjects.

Practise under exam conditions

Fifty questions show where you stand; full-length practice moves the score. The AIBE XXII mock tests are 100-question papers on the official 19-subject weightage with explanations keyed to the new codes; browse the other exam packs if you are also preparing for a judiciary or NET paper.

Sources

• Bar Council of India Trust, Syllabus for All India Bar Exam XXII (13 October 2026)
• BCI press release of 18 July 2026 on AIBE XXI result and AIBE XXII schedule (SCC Online)
• Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (India Code)
• Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (India Code)
• Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (India Code)
• PRS Legislative Research, BNSS key features
• LiveLaw, FIR registration under Section 173 BNSS
• Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (India Code)
• Afcons Infrastructure v Cherian Varkey (SC, 2010)
• Saleem Bhai v State of Maharashtra (SC, 2002)
• Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 (India Code)
• K.N. Govindan Kutty Menon v C.D. Shaji (SC, 2011)
• Supreme Court judgment of 11 December 2021 on Section 13B HMA and Amardeep Singh
• Vineeta Sharma v Rakesh Sharma (SC, 2020)
• Dr Balram Singh v Union of India (SC, 2024)
• Article 84, Constitution of India (CLPR)
• Shreya Singhal v Union of India (SC, 2015)
• Advocates Act, 1961 (India Code)
• National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 (India Code)
• Birendra Prasad Sah v State of Bihar (SC, 2019), reproducing Section 138 NI Act
• Consumer Protection (Jurisdiction) Rules, 2021
• Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, 2019 (PRS)
• Income-tax Act, 2025
• Rajya Sabha answer on implementation of the labour codes
• Code on Wages, 2019 (India Code)
• Industrial Relations Code, 2020 (India Code)
• Section 53, Patents Act, 1970 (IP India)
• CBIC, GST: An Update

AIBE XXII (All India Bar Examination 22) will be held on 29 November 2026, with online registration open from 19 August to 27 October 2026, according to the Bar Council of India press release dated 18 July 2026. The exam is an offline, open-book, multiple-choice paper of 100 questions across 19 subjects, with the pass mark fixed in recent cycles at 45 percent for General and OBC candidates and 40 percent for SC, ST and specially abled candidates. This guide pulls every date, rule and figure from the official AIBE and BCI notifications so that you can plan the next six weeks with confidence.

AIBE XXII 2026: official exam schedule

The Bar Council of India announced the AIBE XXII schedule in the same press release that declared the AIBE XXI result. The dates below are described by the BCI as tentative, which in practice means they can be extended but are rarely advanced. Treat 27 October as your real deadline for registration.

Registration is online only, through allindiabarexamination.com. The registration fee is shown on the portal at the payment step; the schedule notification does not state the amount, so confirm the figure on the portal rather than on third-party websites.

The BCI now holds two exams a year: AIBE XX was held on 30 November 2025 and AIBE XXI on 7 June 2026, so AIBE XXII follows the winter slot with about one month between the registration deadline and the paper.

Who can appear for AIBE XXII

Eligibility was widened after the Constitution Bench ruling in Bar Council of India v. Bonnie Foi Law College (SLP (C) No. 22337 of 2008, decided 10 February 2023), which upheld the BCI’s power to conduct the exam. The AIBE registration notification lists these categories, all of whom must have studied at a BCI-recognised university or a BCI-approved college.

Students from institutions not recognised or approved by the BCI are expressly ineligible, and the burden of confirming recognition is on the candidate. Those who qualify under the undertaking route must later upload an enrolment certificate; the portal notice of 7 July 2026 sets 6 January 2027 as the current last date, under BCI letter No. BCI:D:4035/2026.

AIBE XXII exam pattern

The BCI describes AIBE as a multiple-choice, offline, open-book examination of three and a half hours, conducted in national and regional languages across centres in dozens of cities. AIBE XXI, for example, was held at 292 centres in 60 cities, with 1,75,701 candidates appearing.

In recent cycles the paper has been an afternoon session. The AIBE XXI guidelines required candidates to report by 11:30 AM and barred entry after 1:15 PM. The exact reporting and start time for AIBE XXII will be printed on the admit card, so follow the admit card rather than past patterns.

AIBE XXII syllabus: 19 subjects and question weightage

The Bar Council of India Trust issued the AIBE XXII syllabus on 13 October 2026. It keeps the familiar 19-subject structure and pairs each of the three old criminal codes with its 2023 replacement. Questions may therefore come from either the Indian Penal Code or the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, the Criminal Procedure Code or the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, and the Evidence Act or the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam.

Five subjects account for 46 of the 100 questions: Constitutional Law, CrPC and BNSS, CPC, IPC and BNS, and Evidence and BSA. Add Family Law and the Contract cluster and seven subjects carry 62 marks against a pass mark of 45. Carry the new Sanhitas as well as the old codes, because a question may be framed under either and the section numbers differ; our IPC to BNS section converter is built for exactly this mapping.

Open-book rules: what you can and cannot carry

The open-book label causes more failures than it prevents, because candidates assume they can look everything up. The Examination Guidelines for AIBE XXI, the latest rules on the official portal, are precise about what is permitted, and the AIBE XXII guidelines are expected to follow the same template shortly before the exam.

Permitted inside the hall

Only Bare Acts without notes and comments. A Bare Act carrying short notes, case comments or a commentary section counts as prohibited material. The guidelines do not limit the number of Bare Acts, so carry the statutes that match the weightage table above.

Prohibited inside the hall

Mobile phones, digital or smart watches, bags, handbags, calculators, electronic gadgets, papers, books and notes of any kind. A candidate found with such material, or using unfair means, is liable to be summarily disqualified and ordinarily debarred from taking the exam.

Other exam-day rules from the official guidelines

Carry the admit card and one government-issued photo ID, since entry is refused without the admit card and barred after the cut-off time. Fill the question booklet set code and roll number correctly on the OMR sheet, because errors lead to direct rejection of the sheet. Nobody may leave the hall before the exam ends. Candidates with more than 40 percent disability get 20 minutes of extra time per hour on production of a certified disability certificate, and the guidelines set out scribe rules with the required medical proforma.

AIBE passing marks and how moderation works

The official schedule notification for AIBE XXI states that the passing percentage is fixed at 45 percent for General and OBC candidates and 40 percent for SC, ST and specially abled candidates. The same figures have applied in AIBE XX and are expected for AIBE XXII unless the BCI notifies otherwise. There is no sectional cut-off, no ranking and no merit list; the exam is purely qualifying.

What candidates often miss is moderation. The result is calculated out of 100 marks, but a Monitoring Committee headed by a former Supreme Court judge reviews the paper and the result summary before declaration. In AIBE XXI it reduced the qualifying marks by three for all categories, bringing the effective cut-off to 42 for General and OBC and 37 for SC, ST and PwD candidates. In AIBE XX, five questions were withdrawn and the result was computed out of 95 marks, making the qualifying marks 43 and 38. Aim for 55 or more in your mocks so that you never depend on moderation.

After the provisional answer key, candidates may raise objections through the online objection tracker for a limited window; the result is based on the final key. After the result, the portal opens an online OMR rechecking window, which for AIBE XXI carried a fee of Rs 500 per application.

Exam angle: how to use the next six weeks

Treat the open-book format as a time problem, not a knowledge problem. With 100 questions in 210 minutes you have about two minutes per question, enough to verify a section you already know but not to read a chapter you have never opened. Spend the first three weeks on the seven heavy subjects, marking the sections that are repeatedly tested: Articles 12 to 35, 226, 227 and 368 of the Constitution; Sections 9 to 11 and 96 to 115 of the CPC with Orders I, II, V to IX, XXI, XXXIX and XLI; arrest, bail, FIR, charge and trial under the BNSS alongside the CrPC; general exceptions, abetment and offences against the body and property under the BNS; and admissions, confessions, dying declarations, burden of proof and electronic records under the BSA. In the last three weeks take full-length timed mocks with your actual Bare Acts and note the page ranges you had to hunt for, so you can find them again without tabs or markings. On exam day answer the direct statutory questions first and return to the rest with the Bare Act.

Preparation checklist for AIBE XXII

• Register on the official portal before 27 October 2026, pay by 28 October and use the correction window till 30 October.
• Confirm that your college is BCI-recognised and keep self-attested scanned marksheets ready for the undertaking route.
• Buy clean Bare Acts, without short notes, for the Constitution, CPC, CrPC and BNSS, IPC and BNS, Evidence Act and BSA, Contract, Specific Relief, Transfer of Property, Negotiable Instruments, Hindu Marriage Act and the BCI Rules.
• Learn where the high-frequency sections sit in your copy and practise locating any section within thirty seconds. Keep the copy clean: tabs, highlighting and handwriting can lead to a Bare Act being refused at the gate (see which Bare Acts to carry).
• Solve the AIBE XXI question paper sets published with the official answer key.
• Sit for at least five full-length timed mocks under exam conditions.
• Download the admit card from 14 November and visit the centre a day earlier.
• Pack the admit card, a photo ID, two blue or black ball point pens and your Bare Acts the night before; leave the phone and smart watch behind.

FAQs

Is AIBE XXII an open-book exam?

Yes, but the official guidelines permit only Bare Acts without notes and comments. Books, printed notes, commentaries, handwritten material and electronic devices are prohibited inside the hall.

What are the passing marks for AIBE XXII?

The BCI fixed the passing percentage at 45 percent for General and OBC candidates and 40 percent for SC, ST and specially abled candidates in the AIBE XX and XXI notifications, and the same is expected for AIBE XXII, subject to moderation by the Monitoring Committee.

Can final-year law students appear for AIBE XXII?

Yes. Final-semester students of a 3-year or 5-year LL.B. course at a BCI-recognised institution with no backlogs can register by submitting an undertaking and scanned marksheets of all previous semesters. Graduates awaiting their degree or not yet enrolled are also eligible.

Is there negative marking in AIBE?

No negative marking is indicated in the official notifications or answer key notices, and the result is calculated on the basis of 100 marks. Attempt every question.

Will AIBE XXII have questions from the BNS, BNSS and BSA?

Yes. The official AIBE XXII syllabus dated 13 October 2026 lists the Indian Penal Code and the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita together for 8 questions, the CrPC and the BNSS together for 10 questions, and the Evidence Act and the BSA together for 8 questions. Carry both the old and the new Bare Acts.

Practise with Lexfolio

Once you have registered, the most useful thing you can do is sit a timed paper under open-book conditions. Lexfolio’s AIBE XXII mock tests follow the 19-subject weightage above, with questions framed under both the old codes and the new Sanhitas and explanations that cite the section so you can practise finding each one in your Bare Act as you go. If you are also preparing for a post-graduate entrance, the free CLAT PG 2027 online mock and our 30 important Supreme Court judgments of 2026 cover the same core subjects, and the legal current affairs for October 2026 keeps you current on the new criminal laws. Browse all exam packs for judiciary and UGC NET Law as well.

Sources

• Bar Council of India, Press Release dated 18.07.2026 (AIBE XXI result and tentative schedule for AIBE XXII)
• Bar Council of India Trust, Syllabus for All India Bar Exam-XXII, dated 13.10.2026
• Examination Guidelines for AIBE XXI (open-book and exam-day rules)
• BCIT:D:0014/2026, Schedule for All India Bar Examination-XXI, dated 10.02.2026 (passing percentage)
• AIBE notification on registration of final-year students and graduates without enrolment (undertaking)
• AIBE official portal notices (enrolment certificate submission, OMR rechecking)
• Bar Council of India, All India Bar Examinations (AIBE) information page
• Bar and Bench, 69.21 percent candidates pass AIBE XX; AIBE XXI to be held on June 7
• Supreme Court Observer, Bar Council of India v. Bonnie Foi Law College