Author: Lexfolio Team

CLAT 2027 Legal Reasoning: Method, Traps and Practice

All India CLAT Open Mock: Sunday 15 November

Free full-length CLAT 2027 mock for UG and PG, with explained answers, an All India rank and free packs for the top ranks. Registration takes 30 seconds.

Last updated: 18 October 2026

Short answer: Legal Reasoning carries roughly 28 to 32 of the 120 questions in CLAT 2027, about a quarter of the paper, and needs no prior knowledge of law. Every question is set on a passage of around 450 words that states a rule or principle. To score well, apply only the principle given, even if it differs from the law you know; break each principle into its conditions and exceptions; test the facts against each condition one by one; and watch for traps such as options that are morally appealing but not supported by the principle. Practise with timed passages every day and keep a log of every wrong answer.

This guide explains how the section is built according to the Consortium of National Law Universities’ CLAT 2027 UG syllabus, sets out a method you can use on any principle and fact passage, lists the traps that cost the most marks, and ends with two short original passages and answers for you to try.

How the Legal Reasoning section is built

According to the official syllabus, passages in this section may deal with fact situations or scenarios involving legal matters, public policy questions or moral and philosophical issues. The questions test whether you can:

identify and infer the rules and principles set out in the passage;
apply those rules and principles to various fact situations; and
understand how changes to the rules or principles may alter their application.

The Consortium also says that general awareness of contemporary legal and moral issues will help. In practice, many passages are built around a recent law, judgment or policy debate, which is why the overlap with current affairs is large. For the full section break up, see our guide to the CLAT 2027 UG exam pattern and syllabus.

A five step method for principle and fact questions

Read the question stem before the options. Note exactly what is asked: is A liable, is the contract valid, which statement weakens the principle? Circle words like “not”, “except”, “most likely” and “only”.
Break the principle into elements. Most principles have the form “if X and Y, then Z, unless W”. Write the elements in the margin as a short list: X, Y, then the exception W. This takes ten seconds and saves the most marks.
Match each fact to an element. Go through the facts and tick each element that is satisfied. If one element is missing, the conclusion Z does not follow, however unfair that seems.
Check the exception last. Exceptions are where examiners hide the answer. A fact that looks like padding, such as a warning notice or the age of a person, is often there to trigger the exception.
Choose the option with the right reason. Two options often reach the same conclusion with different reasons. Pick the one whose reason comes from the principle in the passage, not from general fairness or outside law.

Common traps in CLAT legal reasoning

Trap	What it looks like	How to avoid it
Outside knowledge	An option states the correct law in real life, but the passage lays down a different rule	Treat the passage as the only law that exists for that question
Moral appeal	An option sounds fair or kind but no element of the principle supports it	Ask which words of the principle the option relies on
Right answer, wrong reason	Two options say “A is liable”; only one gives the reason the principle requires	Read the reason clause of every option to the end
Missing element	Most elements are met, so you assume the conclusion follows	Tick elements one by one; one missing element defeats the claim
Ignored exception	A small fact, such as consent or a notice, is skipped	Look for the exception before choosing
Extreme words	Options with “always”, “never”, “in all cases”	Prefer options that keep the limits stated in the passage

Practise on full passages. The CLAT UG 2027 Mock Tests include legal reasoning sets in the exam format, with the reasoning behind every answer explained, so you can see exactly which element or exception decided each question.

Sample passage 1: liability for a stray animal

Passage: A person who keeps an animal is liable for harm caused by it only if the keeper knew, or ought reasonably to have known, that the animal had a tendency to cause that kind of harm. Knowledge may be inferred from earlier incidents of a similar kind. However, a keeper is not liable where the person harmed provoked the animal, or entered the keeper’s premises without permission despite a clear warning.

Question 1. Rohan’s dog had bitten two delivery workers in the past month, and Rohan had been told about both incidents. One evening the dog slipped out of the gate and bit Meera, who was walking on the public road. Is Rohan liable?

(a) No, because the dog escaped by accident.
(b) Yes, because Rohan knew of earlier bites, and Meera neither provoked the dog nor entered his premises.
(c) Yes, because every dog owner is responsible for any harm caused by the dog.
(d) No, because Meera was not a delivery worker.

Answer: (b). The knowledge element is met through two similar earlier incidents, and neither exception applies. Option (c) reaches the same result with a rule wider than the passage, which makes liability depend on knowledge. Option (d) is wrong because the tendency is to bite people, not only delivery workers.

Question 2. Same facts, except that Meera had climbed over Rohan’s locked gate to fetch her cricket ball, ignoring a board reading “Beware of dog. Do not enter.” Is Rohan liable?

Answer: No. Rohan’s knowledge is still established, but the second exception applies: Meera entered the premises without permission despite a clear warning. Her reason for entering does not matter under the principle as stated. This is the classic “changed fact” question: one added fact moves the case from the main rule into the exception.

Sample passage 2: a promise of a reward

Passage: When a person publicly offers a reward for doing a particular act, anyone who does that act while knowing of the offer is entitled to the reward. A person who does the act without knowing of the offer cannot claim it, because one cannot accept an offer one is unaware of. The offer may be withdrawn at any time before the act is done, but only by a notice given in the same manner as the offer.

Question 1. Kavita put up posters across her colony offering Rs 5,000 for the return of her lost cat. Arjun, who had not seen the posters, found the cat and returned it. The next day he saw a poster and claimed the reward. Is he entitled to it?

(a) Yes, because he did the very act for which the reward was offered.
(b) Yes, because it would be unfair for Kavita to keep the money.
(c) No, because he did not know of the offer when he returned the cat.
(d) No, because the offer was made only to residents of the colony.

Answer: (c). Knowledge at the time of the act is an element. Learning of the offer afterwards does not help. Option (b) is the moral appeal trap, and (d) invents a condition the passage does not contain.

Question 2. After seeing the posters, Sunil began searching for the cat. Meanwhile Kavita sent a WhatsApp message to a few neighbours saying the reward was cancelled, but left the posters up. Sunil, who did not get the message, returned the cat. Can he claim the reward?

Answer: Yes. Sunil knew of the offer when he did the act. The withdrawal was not effective, because the offer was made by public posters and the cancellation was not given in the same manner. The fact that a withdrawal was attempted is the distractor; the passage tells you exactly what a valid withdrawal requires.

How to practise legal reasoning in the weeks left

Three passages a day, timed. Aim for about seven to eight minutes per passage with five or six questions, including reading. Note the time on each one.
Write the elements for the first two weeks. Jot X, Y, unless W in the margin for every principle until it becomes automatic. Then do it in your head.
Keep a trap log. For each wrong answer, write which of the six traps above caught you. After twenty passages you will know your own weakness.
Read the news with a legal eye. When a new law or major judgment is reported, ask what principle it lays down and what its exceptions are. That is exactly the shape of a CLAT passage. Our guide to CLAT 2027 current affairs lists the big themes of 2026.
Test under full exam conditions. Sectional practice builds the method; full length mocks show whether it holds up in the second hour. Start with the free online CLAT UG mock test and follow the review method in our last 50 days strategy.

Short on time? The CLAT UG 2027 Crash Course brings revision for all five sections together, including legal reasoning. See all CLAT UG exam packs.

Frequently asked questions

How many legal reasoning questions are there in CLAT 2027?

The Consortium’s question paper format gives a range of 28 to 32 questions, roughly 25 per cent of the 120 question paper.

Should I study law books for CLAT UG legal reasoning?

No. Prior knowledge of law is not required, and relying on it can mislead you when the passage states a different rule. Familiarity with basic legal terms such as offer, consent, negligence and liability does make reading faster.

What if the principle in the passage seems wrong?

Apply it anyway. The question tests your ability to apply the rule given, not whether the rule is good law or fair.

Does legal reasoning matter for ties?

Yes. Under the CLAT 2027 UG instructions, the first tie breaker is higher marks in the Legal Aptitude section.

*This article is general information, not legal advice. The sample passages are original and simplified for practice. Lexfolio is an independent publisher and is not affiliated with the Consortium of National Law Universities or any NLU.*

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18 October 2026

CLAT 2027 UG: Exam Date, Pattern, Syllabus and Seats

All India CLAT Open Mock: Sunday 15 November

Free full-length CLAT 2027 mock for UG and PG, with explained answers, an All India rank and free packs for the top ranks. Registration takes 30 seconds.

Last updated: 18 October 2026

Short answer: CLAT 2027 for the five year integrated LL.B. programmes will be held on Sunday, 6 December 2026, from 2:00 pm to 4:00 pm (2:00 pm to 4:40 pm for eligible PwD candidates), in offline mode. The UG paper has 120 multiple choice questions across five sections, with 1 mark for each correct answer and a deduction of 0.25 for each wrong answer. Applications close on 31 October 2026. You need to have passed Class 12 with 45 per cent marks (40 per cent for SC, ST and PwD candidates), students taking their board exams in March or April 2027 can apply, and there is no upper age limit. The fee is Rs 4,000, or Rs 3,500 for SC, ST, BPL and PwD candidates.

This guide is built from the Consortium of National Law Universities’ press release of 22 July 2026, its CLAT 2027 UG eligibility, UG syllabus, UG question paper format and UG instructions pages, and the CLAT 2027 information brochures of individual NLUs. Where the official pages do not give a figure, we say so instead of filling the gap with an estimate.

CLAT 2027 UG at a glance

Item	Official position for CLAT 2027 (UG)
Conducting body	Consortium of National Law Universities (26 participating NLUs)
Exam date and time	Sunday, 6 December 2026, 2:00 pm to 4:00 pm; eligible PwD candidates 2:00 pm to 4:40 pm (subject to revision)
Mode	Offline, at notified test centres
Application window	3 August 2026 to 31 October 2026
Application fee	Rs 4,000 for General and OBC candidates; Rs 3,500 for SC, ST, BPL and PwD candidates; paid online, non refundable
Previous years’ papers	Optional, Rs 500 extra
Admit card	To be downloaded from the candidate’s login; release date to be announced
Questions and duration	120 multiple choice questions, 2 hours
Marking	+1 for a correct answer, minus 0.25 for a wrong answer, 0 for an unattempted question
Tie breaker	Higher marks in Legal Aptitude, then higher age, then a computerised draw of lots

The Consortium’s Executive Committee and Governing Body fixed the date and the application window at meetings held on 18 July 2026, and the press release followed on 22 July. A few websites have described CLAT 2027 as a computer based test. The Consortium’s own UG instructions say the examination will be in offline mode, so prepare for a printed question booklet and an OMR sheet.

Eligibility for the five year LL.B. through CLAT 2027

Qualifying examination: Class 12 (10+2) or an equivalent examination.
Minimum marks: 45 per cent or an equivalent grade; 40 per cent or an equivalent grade for SC, ST and PwD candidates.
Class 12 students: candidates appearing in the qualifying examination in March or April 2027 can apply. You will have to show proof of passing with the required marks at the time of admission.
Age: there is no upper age limit for the UG programme.
Reservation and domicile: each NLU applies its own reservation policy, including State domicile seats. Check the brochure of every university you list as a preference.

CLAT 2027 UG exam pattern: the five sections

The UG paper is a two hour test of 120 questions carrying 1 mark each. The Consortium describes it as a test of comprehension and reasoning rather than of prior knowledge. Almost every question is set on a passage, and the question paper format page for CLAT 2027 gives the following approximate distribution:

Section	Approximate number of questions	Share of the paper
English Language	22 to 26	About 20 per cent
Current Affairs, including General Knowledge	28 to 32	About 25 per cent
Legal Reasoning	28 to 32	About 25 per cent
Logical Reasoning	22 to 26	About 20 per cent
Quantitative Techniques	10 to 14	About 10 per cent

The ranges are what the Consortium publishes. The exact count in each section is known only when you open the paper, so do not plan your attempt around a fixed number.

What each section actually tests

English Language: passages of about 450 words, which the Consortium says should take five to seven minutes to read. Questions ask for the main idea, inferences, the author’s argument, summaries and the meaning of words in context.
Current Affairs, including General Knowledge: passages of up to 450 words drawn from news, journalistic sources and other non fiction. Questions cover Indian and world affairs, arts and culture, international affairs and historical events, and may touch on the legal side of the news in the passage.
Legal Reasoning: passages of around 450 words on fact situations, public policy questions or moral and philosophical issues. You must identify the rule or principle set out, apply it to facts, and see how a change in the rule changes the outcome. The Consortium states that no prior knowledge of law is needed, though general awareness of legal and moral issues helps. Our guide to CLAT 2027 legal reasoning works through two sample passages.
Logical Reasoning: short passages of about 450 words with questions on arguments, premises and conclusions, assumptions, inferences, analogies and contradictions.
Quantitative Techniques: short sets of facts, graphs or tables, with questions that need Class 10 level mathematics: ratios and proportions, basic algebra, mensuration and statistical estimation.

What negative marking means for you

With four options and minus 0.25 for a wrong answer, a completely blind guess is worth only about +0.06 marks on average, close to nothing: over many such guesses, the marks gained and lost almost cancel out. Once you can rule out one option with confidence, the odds move in your favour, and after ruling out two, answering is clearly worth it. The working rule for CLAT UG is simple: never guess blind, but do not leave a question just because you are not certain.

See the pattern for yourself. Take the Lexfolio free online CLAT UG mock test to experience the five sections, the passage lengths and the negative marking before you plan your remaining weeks.

How to apply before 31 October 2026

Register on the CLAT 2027 page of consortiumofnlus.ac.in using your own mobile number and e-mail address, and verify the registration through the OTP.
Log in, choose the UG programme and fill in your personal and academic details, category, test centre preferences and NLU preferences.
Upload the documents asked for. If you claim a reservation, keep the certificate ready, because originals are checked at the university at the time of admission.
Pay the fee online. Bank and gateway charges are borne by the candidate, and the fee is not refunded.
Submit the form and save the confirmation page. Do not wait for the last evening, when the portal is at its busiest.

UG seats at NLUs: what the 2027 brochures say

The Consortium does not publish one all India seat figure on its UG pages, and the totals quoted on many websites do not cite an official source. Seats, programmes and reservation are set out in each NLU’s own CLAT 2027 brochure, and universities reserve the right to change them. The table below gives the figures stated in four brochures.

NLU	UG intake stated in the CLAT 2027 brochure	Notes
NLSIU Bengaluru	310 seats in the B.A. LL.B. (Hons.) for 2027 to 28	300 seats plus 10 additional seats for Karnataka students; horizontal reservation includes 90 seats for women and 15 for PwD candidates
NALSAR Hyderabad	132 seats in the B.A. LL.B. (Hons.)	99 All India and 33 for Telangana residents; 26 foreign national seats are separate
GNLU Gandhinagar	207 seats across five UG programmes	176 All India seats filled through CLAT and 31 supernumerary seats; allocation described as tentative
RMLNLU Lucknow	169 seats in the B.A. LL.B. (Hons.), plus 22 supernumerary	Reserved seats are for Uttar Pradesh domiciled OBC, SC, ST and EWS candidates

Fees vary just as widely. NLSIU’s brochure, for instance, states a total B.A. LL.B. fee of Rs 5,38,000 for the General category for the year, including refundable deposits and subject to approval. Read every brochure before you fix your preference order, because seats are allotted in the order of preference you give.

What to do with the weeks left

Submit the application first. Nothing else matters if the form is not in by 31 October.
Follow a week by week plan with regular full length mocks. Our CLAT 2027 last 50 days strategy lays one out, with a method for analysing each mock.
Give Current Affairs and Legal Reasoning the most time, since together they are about half the paper. See our guide on how to prepare current affairs for CLAT 2027.
Do not ignore Quantitative Techniques. It is the smallest section, but the questions are often the quickest marks in the paper.

Everything for CLAT UG in one place. Browse the Lexfolio CLAT UG exam packs, including the CLAT UG 2027 Mock Tests in the 120 question format and the CLAT UG 2027 Crash Course for section wise revision, in printable PDF.

Frequently asked questions

When is CLAT 2027 UG?

On Sunday, 6 December 2026, from 2:00 pm to 4:00 pm. Eligible PwD candidates have until 4:40 pm. The Consortium has said the timing may be revised if necessary, so check its website before the exam.

What is the last date to apply for CLAT 2027?

31 October 2026. The application window opened on 3 August 2026.

Can I apply for CLAT 2027 while in Class 12?

Yes. Students appearing in the Class 12 examination in March or April 2027 are eligible, but must show at admission that they passed with 45 per cent (40 per cent for SC, ST and PwD candidates).

Is CLAT 2027 online or offline?

Offline. The Consortium’s UG instructions state that the examination will be held in offline mode at notified test centres.

Do I need to know law for the Legal Reasoning section?

No. The Consortium says no prior knowledge of law is required. Every principle you need is given in the passage. General awareness of legal and moral issues helps you read the passages faster.

How are ties broken in CLAT UG?

By higher marks in the Legal Aptitude section, then by higher age, and finally by a computerised draw of lots.

*This article is general information, not legal advice. Lexfolio is an independent publisher and is not affiliated with the Consortium of National Law Universities or any NLU. Always confirm dates and rules on the official CLAT website.*

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18 October 2026

Legal Current Affairs October 2026 with 10 Practice MCQs
All India CLAT Open Mock: Sunday 15 November
Free full-length CLAT 2027 mock for UG and PG, with explained answers, an All India rank and free packs for the top ranks. Registration takes 30 seconds.
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Last updated: 18 October 2026
Short answer: The first half of October 2026 was busy for legal news. Three High Court Chief Justices joined the Supreme Court on 6 October, taking its working strength to 37; a seven judge bench closed a reference on legislative privilege and press freedom that arose from a 2003 case; the Court declared the right to access the internet a fundamental right, including for children; and it ruled on election petitions, Hindu women’s property, temple land, mid course fee hikes and sections 163 and 172 of the BNSS. Below are 20 developments from 1 to 17 October 2026, each checked against reports of the order, followed by 10 practice MCQs with answers.
Judiciary and constitutional law
1. Three new Supreme Court judges (6 October). Justices Sunita Agarwal (Chief Justice, Gujarat High Court), Devendra Kumar Upadhyaya (Chief Justice, Delhi High Court) and Aparesh Kumar Singh (Chief Justice, Telangana High Court) took oath before Chief Justice Surya Kant. The Court’s working strength rose to 37 against a sanctioned strength of 38, and it now has three women judges.
2. Legislative privilege reference closed (6 October). A seven judge bench disposed of N. Ravi v. Speaker, Legislative Assembly, Chennai as infructuous, recording that the 2003 Tamil Nadu Assembly resolution against journalists of The Hindu had been withdrawn in 2004. The questions on Article 194(3) versus Articles 19(1)(a) and 21 were left open for a future case.
3. Internet access is a fundamental right (reported 17 October). In Just Rights for Children Alliance v. S. Harish, a bench of Justices J.B. Pardiwala and K. Vinod Chandran held that the right to access and use the internet flows from Article 21 read with Article 19(1)(a) and extends to children. Blanket bans on children’s access were called disproportionate, though age based safeguards and blocking of harmful content remain open to the Union.
4. National database of child abuse material (same order). The Union was directed to create a database of hash values and URLs of confirmed child sexual exploitation and abuse material, verified by at least three trained analysts, so that platforms can remove it everywhere. Intermediaries must report such material to Indian police, not only to foreign bodies. The next hearing is on 10 December 2026.
5. Women’s safety in Delhi NCR (5 October). In a suo motu case on recent rape incidents, a bench of Justices Pardiwala and Vinod Chandran directed enhanced beat patrolling, strict verification of cab and bus drivers and real time monitoring through command centres, while cautioning that preventive policing cannot justify arbitrary action.
6. Section 163 and section 172 BNSS (15 October). A bench of the Chief Justice and Justice Joymalya Bagchi refused to examine the validity of section 163 BNSS, the successor of section 144 CrPC, noting that section 144 was upheld in Babulal Parate (1961). It issued notice on a challenge to section 172 BNSS, which lets police detain a person who disregards lawful directions, and listed the matter on 19 November.
7. Andhra Pradesh local body quota (9 October). Justices Dipankar Datta and Sheel Nagu dismissed the State’s appeal against the High Court ruling that quashed 34 per cent reservation for Backward Classes in local body elections. The High Court had found that total reservation crossed the 50 per cent ceiling of Indra Sawhney without reliable data.
Criminal law and evidence
8. Ahmedabad blasts: execution stayed (1 October). A bench of Justices Vikram Nath, Sandeep Mehta and Augustine George Masih stayed the death sentence of one of the 38 convicts in the 2008 Ahmedabad serial blasts case while hearing his appeal. The Gujarat High Court had confirmed all 38 death sentences in July 2026.
9. Demand is essential for bribery (5 October). In Ajit Kumar v. State of Jharkhand (2026 INSC 1084), Justices Ujjal Bhuyan and Atul S. Chandurkar set aside a conviction under sections 7 and 13 of the Prevention of Corruption Act because the demand for a bribe was not proved by more than the complainant’s uncorroborated word.
10. Civil disputes dressed as crimes (5 October). In Sudha Rakesh v. State of Karnataka (2026 INSC 1086), the Court quashed a cheating case over a land sale and called the habit of turning civil disputes into criminal complaints an “open secret” that courts must check.
11. Courts must compare handwriting themselves (reported 6 October). In Gopal Pathak v. Nitin, Justices Ahsanuddin Amanullah and Manmohan held that under section 72 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam a court must compare disputed signatures itself, and may call a handwriting expert only when it has real doubt or the writing is unclear.
12. Anticipatory bail directly from the High Court (judgment reserved, reported 8 October). A bench of Justices Vikram Nath, Sandeep Mehta and Aparesh Kumar Singh reserved judgment on whether a person may approach the High Court directly under section 482 BNSS (section 438 CrPC) without first going to the Sessions Court. The bench indicated that the Sessions Court should ordinarily be the first stop.
13. Vacation and listing dates (16 October). In Senior Intelligence Officer v. Mohammed Kamran, Justices Datta and Nagu held that when a High Court directs listing “two weeks hence” and the period ends during vacation, the Registry should ordinarily exclude the vacation days, subject to the High Court’s rules.
Want the whole year in one place? The Lexfolio Legal Current Affairs 2026 compilation brings the year’s key judgments and legal developments together month by month, with practice MCQs.
Civil, family, election and commercial law
14. Election petitions must be presented personally (7 October). In V. Pon. Paneerselvam v. S. Regupathy (2026 INSC 1092), the Court held that section 81 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 requires the petitioner to present the election petition himself, so a petition filed through counsel was not maintainable.
15. Overlapping contracts and arbitration (8 October). In Shubham Equipment v. Rothwell Water Company (2026 INSC 1098), a bench led by the Chief Justice held that an overlap between disputes under a joint venture agreement and a separate licence agreement is no ground to refuse a section 11 reference at the threshold, and appointed a sole arbitrator.
16. Hindu widow’s limited estate (9 October). In Sultan Singh v. Financial Commissioner, GNCT of Delhi (2026 INSC 1107), the Court reiterated that section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 converts a female Hindu’s limited estate into absolute ownership, describing it as a measure against gender discrimination in inheritance.
17. State cannot accept gift of temple land (reported 17 October). In K. Ramalingam v. Government of Tamil Nadu, Justices P.S. Narasimha and Alok Aradhe declared void a gift of temple inam land to the State for a taluk office. The State is only a custodian of temple property, and section 41 of the Tamil Nadu HR&CE Act, 1959 bars such gifts; enhanced rent was ordered instead.
Education, health and service law
18. Law student attendance (judgment reserved, 6 October). Justices Vikram Nath, Sandeep Mehta and Augustine George Masih reserved judgment on appeals by the Bar Council of India and NMIMS against a November 2025 Delhi High Court ruling that law students cannot be barred from exams only for shortage of attendance. A key paragraph of that ruling has been stayed since 26 May 2026.
19. No mid course fee hikes (reported 15 October). In Dr. B.C. Roy Engineering College v. State of West Bengal, Justices Narasimha and Aradhe held that fees for professional courses should be fixed for the whole course before admission, and may change midway only in exceptional cases such as a sudden, unforeseen rise in costs.
20. Pharma marketing to doctors (8 October). In a petition by medical representatives’ associations, Justices Vikram Nath and Sandeep Mehta directed the Union to form a committee to recommend statutory regulation of pharmaceutical marketing within two months of its first meeting. The non statutory Uniform Code for Pharmaceutical Marketing Practices, 2024 continues until then; the case returns on 29 January 2027.
10 practice MCQs with answers
Q1. After the oath of three judges on 6 October 2026, the working strength of the Supreme Court, including the Chief Justice, is:
(a) 34 (b) 35 (c) 37 (d) 38
Answer: (c). The working strength rose to 37 against a sanctioned strength of 38.
Q2. Section 163 of the BNSS corresponds to which provision of the CrPC?
(a) Section 107 (b) Section 133 (c) Section 144 (d) Section 151
Answer: (c). Section 144 CrPC, upheld in Babulal Parate (1961), was the basis for the Court declining to examine section 163.
Q3. The reference closed on 6 October 2026 in N. Ravi v. Speaker concerned the interplay of Articles 19(1)(a) and 21 with:
(a) Article 105(3) (b) Article 194(3) (c) Article 212 (d) Article 361
Answer: (b). Article 194(3) deals with the powers, privileges and immunities of State Legislatures.
Q4. In October 2026 the Supreme Court declared the right to access the internet a fundamental right under:
(a) Article 19(1)(g) alone (b) Article 21 read with Article 19(1)(a) (c) Article 21A alone (d) Article 51A
Answer: (b).
Q5. Under section 81 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, as read in V. Pon. Paneerselvam, an election petition must be presented by:
(a) any advocate on record (b) the petitioner himself (c) the Election Commission (d) any elector of the constituency
Answer: (b).
Q6. Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956:
(a) gives daughters coparcenary rights by birth (b) makes a female Hindu’s limited estate absolute (c) disqualifies remarried widows (d) governs succession to agricultural tenancies only
Answer: (b). Coparcenary rights for daughters are in section 6, as amended in 2005.
Q7. The Andhra Pradesh High Court ruling left in place by the Supreme Court on 9 October 2026 found that local body reservation breached the ceiling laid down in:
(a) M. Nagaraj (b) Indra Sawhney (c) Jarnail Singh (d) K. Krishna Murthy
Answer: (b). Indra Sawhney (1992) fixed the 50 per cent ceiling.
Q8. In Ajit Kumar v. State of Jharkhand (October 2026), the conviction under sections 7 and 13 of the Prevention of Corruption Act failed mainly because:
(a) sanction was invalid (b) the trap was not recorded on video (c) demand of bribe was not proved (d) the complainant turned hostile
Answer: (c).
Q9. The provision of the BNSS that corresponds to section 438 CrPC (anticipatory bail) is:
(a) Section 480 (b) Section 482 (c) Section 483 (d) Section 528
Answer: (b). Section 528 BNSS is the successor of section 482 CrPC (inherent powers), a common trap.
Q10. In Gopal Pathak v. Nitin, the Court held that in a handwriting dispute under section 72 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam:
(a) expert opinion is mandatory (b) the court must compare the writing itself and call an expert only if in doubt (c) only a forensic laboratory can decide (d) the burden always lies on the defendant
Answer: (b).
For the larger picture of 2026, read our list of 30 important Supreme Court judgments for CLAT PG 2027, and plan your remaining weeks with our last 50 days strategy.
Revise current affairs the quick way. Legal Current Affairs 2026 gathers the year’s key legal developments in short, exam ready notes with MCQs, in a printable PDF.
Frequently asked questions
How much legal current affairs is asked in CLAT PG?
CLAT PG has no separate current affairs section. Recent developments matter because passages are drawn from judgments and statutes, and questions may ask about related rulings.
Which period of current affairs should I cover for CLAT PG 2027?
Cover roughly the twelve months before the exam, with extra attention to major constitutional and criminal law rulings from 2026.
Are reserved judgments worth noting?
Yes, briefly. If the judgment is delivered before the exam, it may become a passage. Note the question involved and the bench, and update your notes when the ruling comes.
*This article is general information, not legal advice.*
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18 October 2026

CLAT PG Preparation Strategy: Last 50 Days Study Plan

All India CLAT Open Mock: Sunday 15 November

Free full-length CLAT 2027 mock for UG and PG, with explained answers, an All India rank and free packs for the top ranks. Registration takes 30 seconds.

Last updated: 18 October 2026

Short answer: From 18 October 2026 there are exactly 49 days to CLAT 2027 on Sunday, 6 December 2026. Use them in three phases: weeks 1 to 3 to close gaps subject by subject while taking one or two mocks a week, weeks 4 to 6 to take three timed mocks a week and analyse each one properly, and week 7 to revise from your own short notes and rest. Read judgments for structure, not for detail, keep an error log, and do not guess blindly: each wrong answer costs 0.25 marks. Finish your CLAT application before 31 October 2026.

What you are preparing for

The CLAT PG paper has 120 objective questions in a single section, to be done in 120 minutes, with 1 mark for each correct answer and minus 0.25 for each wrong one. The questions are set on extracts from judgments, statutes and regulations across thirteen subjects: Constitutional Law, Jurisprudence, Administrative Law, Contract, Torts, Family Law, Criminal Law, Property Law, Company Law, Public International Law, Tax Law, Environmental Law, and Labour and Industrial Law. Full details are in our guide to the CLAT PG 2027 exam pattern and syllabus.

Two things follow. First, speed of reading legal text matters as much as knowledge, because you get about one minute per question including the passage. Second, many questions go beyond the passage and ask about a related case or provision, so you still need subject knowledge. The plan below trains both.

The 7 week study plan

The plan assumes about six hours of study a day. If you are working or in your final LL.B. year, keep the order but cut the volume, and never cut the mocks or their analysis.

Week and dates	Subjects and reading	Mocks	Revision task
Week 1: 19 to 25 October	Constitutional Law (fundamental rights, Articles 14, 19, 21, 32) and Jurisprudence (schools, precedent, rights and duties)	1 full mock as a baseline, untimed analysis	Start your error log and a one page sheet per subject
Week 2: 26 October to 1 November	Constitutional Law (federalism, elections, emergency) and Administrative Law; submit the CLAT form by 31 October	1 full mock	Read 8 of the 2026 judgments on the reading list
Week 3: 2 to 8 November	Criminal Law (BNS, BNSS, BSA and older IPC case law) and Family Law	2 full mocks	Revise weeks 1 and 2 sheets in one sitting
Week 4: 9 to 15 November	Contract, Torts and Property Law	3 full mocks	Read 8 more 2026 judgments
Week 5: 16 to 22 November	Company Law, Tax Law, Labour and Industrial Law	3 full mocks	Re-attempt every wrong question from the error log
Week 6: 23 to 29 November	Public International Law, Environmental Law, and legal current affairs from June to November	3 full mocks, at 2:00 pm to match exam time	Finish the 2026 reading list; revise all sheets
Week 7: 30 November to 5 December	No new topics. Only one page sheets, error log and case list	2 full mocks (Monday and Wednesday)	Light revision on Friday and Saturday; sleep early

That is 15 full mocks in total. If you have already taken many mocks, keep the number but raise the bar on analysis rather than adding more papers.

A sample study day

Slot	Task
Morning, 2 hours	Core subject of the week: concepts, provisions, leading cases
Late morning, 1 hour	Two judgments from the reading list, with three line notes each
Afternoon, 2 hours	Mock or sectional passage practice, at the exam slot of 2:00 pm
Evening, 1 hour	Mock analysis and error log; ten minutes on current legal news

Need the mocks for this plan? The Lexfolio CLAT PG 2027 Mock Tests follow the 120 question, single section format, with passages drawn from judgments and statutes and an explanation for every answer.

How to read a judgment for CLAT PG

You are not reading to write a case comment. You are reading to answer four or five questions quickly and correctly. A simple method works for most passages:

Find the question of law first. Look for words like “the issue before us”, “the question that arises” or “we are called upon to decide”. Underline it.
Separate the voices. Judgments report the appellant’s case, the respondent’s case and then the court’s view. Many wrong answers come from picking an argument the court rejected. Mark each paragraph in the margin: A for appellant, R for respondent, C for court.
Spot the provision and the precedent. Note every section, article and earlier case named. Questions on “which provision” or “which earlier decision” are common and quick to answer if you have marked them.
Locate the holding and its limits. Words like “however”, “subject to”, “only where” usually mark the boundary of the rule. Options that drop these limits are often traps.
Distinguish ratio from observation. A remark made in passing is not the ratio. If an option states a broad principle the court only mentioned, be careful.

For your reading list, keep a three line note for each case: the issue, the holding with its limits, and the older case or provision it builds on. Our list of 30 important Supreme Court judgments of 2026 is set out in that format. Aim to finish it by the end of week 6.

Building reading speed

Time yourself on one passage of about 400 to 500 words every day and note the time taken. Steady, timed practice is the surest way to bring reading time down.
Read the questions before the passage only if that suits you; test both methods in your first two mocks and keep the faster one.
Do not re-read whole paragraphs. Go back only to the line the question points to.

Mock test strategy

Take mocks like the real exam

The exam starts at 2:00 pm, so from week 4 take your mocks at 2:00 pm. Sit at a desk, use a printed paper if you can, and keep the phone in another room. A mock taken half heartedly at night tells you little about your score in the afternoon.

Analyse for twice as long as you test

A two hour mock deserves about two hours of analysis, spread over the same evening and the next morning. Sort every wrong or skipped question into one of five types in your error log:

Error type	What it means	Fix
Knowledge gap	You did not know the case or provision	Add it to the subject sheet and revise within 48 hours
Misreading	You missed a “not”, “except” or a qualifier	Circle negatives in the question stem every time
Wrong voice	You picked the losing party’s argument	Use the A, R, C margin marks
Over inference	You chose an option broader than the text supports	Ask: does the passage actually say this?
Time pressure	You guessed or skipped near the end	Fix your passage order and per passage time limit

After five or six mocks, a pattern will show. Many candidates find they lose more marks to misreading and wrong voice errors than to gaps in knowledge, and these are the cheapest marks to recover.

Attempt strategy and negative marking

Do a first pass of easy passages. Start with subjects you are strongest in. Leave a long or dense passage for the second pass rather than getting stuck.
Use the elimination rule. With four options and minus 0.25 per wrong answer, a pure guess is worth only about +0.06 marks on average, close to nothing. If you can eliminate one option with confidence, the odds turn slightly in your favour. If you can eliminate two, answer.
Keep ten minutes at the end to return to marked questions. Do not change answers unless you find a clear reason in the text.
Track accuracy, not only attempts. A rough target is accuracy above 80 per cent on attempted questions. If your accuracy drops below 70 per cent, attempt fewer questions in the next mock and read more carefully.

Revision that sticks

One page per subject. By the end of week 6 you should have thirteen sheets, each with the key provisions, ten to fifteen leading cases and the year’s important rulings. In week 7 you revise only these, not textbooks.
Spaced repetition. Revise a sheet the day after you make it, again after a week and again in week 7. Three short revisions beat one long one.
Error log reattempts. In week 5 and again in week 7, try every wrong question from your log without looking at the answer.
Current affairs. Keep a short running list of legal developments by month. Our legal current affairs for October 2026 has practice questions you can add to it.

The last 72 hours and exam day

Thursday 3 December: last light revision of all sheets; no mock.
Friday 4 December: case list and error log only. Download and print the admit card as soon as it is released, and check the test centre address and route.
Saturday 5 December: keep the admit card, a valid photo identity card and the items the Consortium permits ready. Stop studying by evening and sleep on time.
Sunday 6 December: eat a proper meal before leaving, reach the centre well before reporting time, and follow the attempt plan you tested in your mocks. Do not try a new strategy on the day.

Mocks with every answer explained. CLAT PG 2027 Mock Tests give you full length papers in the exam format with answer keys and reasons, so you can run the analysis described above.

Frequently asked questions

Is 50 days enough to prepare for CLAT PG?

It is enough to make a real difference if you already studied the core LL.B. subjects. Spend the time on passage practice, mocks and revision rather than on reading new textbooks.

How many mocks should I take before CLAT PG 2027?

About 15 full mocks in the last seven weeks is a good number, provided each is analysed properly. Fewer mocks with careful analysis are better than many mocks taken and forgotten.

Which subjects should I prioritise?

Start with Constitutional Law, because it overlaps with administrative, criminal and service law passages, and with whichever syllabus subjects you studied least during your LL.B. Do not skip Labour and Industrial Law, which is on the official CLAT 2027 list.

Should I attempt all 120 questions?

Only if your accuracy supports it. With negative marking, a careful attempt of fewer questions at high accuracy often scores more than attempting everything.

*This article is general information, not legal advice.*

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18 October 2026

30 Important Supreme Court Judgments of 2026 for CLAT PG

All India CLAT Open Mock: Sunday 15 November

Free full-length CLAT 2027 mock for UG and PG, with explained answers, an All India rank and free packs for the top ranks. Registration takes 30 seconds.

Last updated: 18 October 2026

Short answer: CLAT PG passages are extracts from judgments and statutes, and recent Supreme Court rulings are a favourite source. The 30 judgments below, delivered between January and mid October 2026, are the ones most worth reading for CLAT PG 2027 on 6 December 2026. They cover every subject on the official syllabus, from passive euthanasia and the Bihar electoral roll revision to strict liability, insider trading and the meaning of “industry”. Each entry gives the date, the bench, the holding and the angle from which a question is likely.

Each ruling fits a syllabus subject and links to an older precedent. Dates, benches and citations were checked against reports of the judgments; where the exact date could not be confirmed, only the month is given.

January to March 2026

1. Gulfisha Fatima v. State (NCT of Delhi), 5 January 2026, Aravind Kumar and N.V. Anjaria JJ. In the UAPA “larger conspiracy” case arising from the 2020 Delhi riots, the Court refused bail to Umar Khalid and Sharjeel Imam, finding a prima facie central role, but granted conditional bail to five co-accused. Exam angle: the “prima facie true” bar in section 43D(5) UAPA, and how it sits with K.A. Najeeb (2021) on prolonged custody and Article 21.

2. Kanchana Rai v. Geeta Sharma, 2026 INSC 54, January 2026, Pankaj Mithal and S.V.N. Bhatti JJ. A son’s widow is a “dependant” under section 21(vii) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 whether she was widowed before or after her father-in-law died, and can claim maintenance from his estate under section 22. A narrower reading was called arbitrary under Article 14. Exam angle: sections 19, 21 and 22 HAMA.

3. Centre for Public Interest Litigation v. Union of India, January 2026, B.V. Nagarathna and K.V. Viswanathan JJ. A split verdict on section 17A of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, which requires prior approval before any inquiry into a public servant’s official decisions. Justice Nagarathna struck it down under Article 14; Justice Viswanathan upheld it, provided approval turns on the recommendation of the Lokpal or Lokayukta. Exam angle: the 2018 amendment, and reference of a split verdict to a larger bench.

4. Authority for Advance Rulings (Income Tax) v. Tiger Global International II Holdings, 15 January 2026, J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan JJ. Gains from the sale of Flipkart’s Singapore shares by Mauritius entities were held taxable in India. A tax residency certificate is not conclusive proof of treaty benefit, and the treaty’s grandfathering clause covers only direct transfers. Exam angle: treaty shopping, substance over form, and contrast with Azadi Bachao Andolan (2003).

5. Dr. Jaya Thakur v. Government of India, 2026 INSC 97, 30 January 2026, J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan JJ. Menstrual health was held to be part of the right to life under Article 21 and the right to education under Article 21A, with Article 14 requiring affirmative steps to remove barriers. Schools must provide toilets and menstrual absorbents within three months. Exam angle: substantive equality and continuing mandamus.

6. State of West Bengal v. Confederation of State Government Employees, 2026 INSC 123, 5 February 2026, Sanjay Karol and Prashant Kumar Mishra JJ. Dearness allowance, once payable under the service rules, is an enforceable right, and the State cannot plead lack of funds. A committee chaired by Justice Indu Malhotra (retd.) was set up to fix the payment schedule. Exam angle: the State as a model employer; livelihood under Article 21.

7. Harish Rana v. Union of India, 2026 INSC 222, 11 March 2026, J.B. Pardiwala and K.V. Viswanathan JJ. Clinically assisted nutrition and hydration is medical treatment, not basic care, and may be withheld or withdrawn as passive euthanasia. The Court allowed withdrawal for a man in a persistent vegetative state for 13 years, applying the Common Cause guidelines. Exam angle: Aruna Shanbaug (2011), Common Cause (2018, modified 2023), and the right to die with dignity.

8. Hamsaanandini Nanduri v. Union of India, 2026 INSC 246, 17 March 2026, J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan JJ. Section 60(4) of the Code on Social Security, 2020, which gave adoptive mothers maternity benefit only if the child was under three months old, was held to violate Article 14 and read down: every adoptive mother gets 12 weeks from the date the child is handed over. Exam angle: under-inclusive classification, reading down, and adoption as reproductive autonomy under Article 21.

9. Chinthada Anand v. State of Andhra Pradesh, 2026 INSC 283, 24 March 2026, Prashant Kumar Mishra and Manmohan JJ. A person who professes Christianity cannot claim Scheduled Caste status or invoke the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, and a State certificate cannot override the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950. Exam angle: paragraph 3 of the 1950 Order and Article 341.

April to June 2026

10. In Re: Phalodi Accident v. National Highways Authority of India, 2026 INSC 388, 13 April 2026, J.K. Maheshwari and Atul S. Chandurkar JJ. Acting suo motu on 34 deaths in two 2025 highway accidents, the Court held commuter safety to be part of the right to live with dignity under Article 21 and issued interim directions under Article 142. Exam angle: positive obligations of the State.

11. NagreeKa Indcon Products v. Cargocare Logistics (India), 2026 INSC 384, 17 April 2026, Sanjay Karol and N. Kotiswar Singh JJ. A clause saying disputes “can” be referred to arbitration only signals a possibility and is not a binding arbitration agreement. Exam angle: section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 and Jagdish Chander v. Ramesh Chander (2007).

12. Gunjan v. State (NCT of Delhi), 2026 INSC 468, 11 May 2026, Prashant Kumar Mishra and N.V. Anjaria JJ. Caste abuse inside a purely private house, not accessible to the public, is not “within public view” under section 3(1)(r) and (s) of the SC/ST Act. Exam angle: the line drawn in Hitesh Verma v. State of Uttarakhand (2020).

13. Padam Mehta v. State of Rajasthan, 2026 INSC 476, 12 May 2026, Vikram Nath and Sandeep Mehta JJ. Education in one’s mother tongue was held to flow from Article 19(1)(a), and Rajasthan was directed to frame a policy introducing Rajasthani in education. Exam angle: Article 350A and language rights.

14. Pune Bar Association v. Union of India, 22 May 2026, Surya Kant CJI, Joymalya Bagchi and Vipul M. Pancholi JJ. The certificate requirement for electronic records in section 63(4) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, including hash value disclosure, is not manifestly arbitrary. A person with proven expertise in computer science or cyber forensics may sign the expert part. Exam angle: successor to section 65B and Arjun Panditrao Khotkar (2020).

15. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Election Commission of India, 27 May 2026, Surya Kant CJI and Joymalya Bagchi J. The Special Intensive Revision of Bihar’s electoral rolls was upheld as traceable to section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 read with Article 324. The Commission may examine citizenship only prima facie, for inclusion in the roll, and must refer doubtful cases to the authority under the Citizenship Act. Exam angle: Articles 324 and 326.

16. State of Tamil Nadu v. Junglee Games India, 2026 INSC 594, 27 May 2026, J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan JJ. Even a game of skill, when played for stakes, is “betting” under Entry 34 of the State List, so States may prohibit it, and such betting has no protection under Article 19(1)(g). The contrary Madras and Karnataka High Court rulings were set aside. Exam angle: R.M.D. Chamarbaugwala (1957) and K.R. Lakshmanan (1996).

17. Shishu Pal v. Surjeet, 2026 INSC 634, 11 June 2026, Sanjay Karol and N. Kotiswar Singh JJ. For a homemaker’s death in a road accident, the Court created a new head, “loss of domestic care”, at Rs 30,000 a month, rising 10 per cent every three years, and raised the award from Rs 8.43 lakh to Rs 62.78 lakh. Exam angle: valuing unpaid work after Kirti v. Oriental Insurance (2021).

18. Maniyar Iliyaz v. P. Ayyappan, 2026 INSC 647, 19 June 2026, P.S. Narasimha and Atul S. Chandurkar JJ. While enhancing compensation for a child killed by a tanker on the way to school, the Court declared the right to walk on safe footpaths a fundamental right and held civic bodies under an enforceable duty to build and maintain them. Exam angle: expanding Article 21.

Practise on the actual text. The Lexfolio CLAT PG 2027 Judgment Passages set turns key 2026 rulings into exam style extracts with question sets and explained answers, grouped by syllabus subject.

July to mid October 2026

19. Mahinder v. Puran Singh, 2026 INSC 698, 14 July 2026, Sanjay Karol and N. Kotiswar Singh JJ. The preferential right of co-heirs under section 22 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 applies to inherited agricultural land; Babu Ram (2019) was correctly decided and Parliament had competence under Entry 5 of the Concurrent List. Exam angle: distinguishing the pre-emption law struck down in Atam Prakash (1986).

20. Sayara Khatoon v. State of Bihar, 23 July 2026, M.M. Sundresh and Prasanna B. Varale JJ. A policy allowing compassionate appointment only to divorced or deserted daughters, and excluding married daughters, violates Article 14; marriage does not sever a daughter’s tie with her family. Exam angle: gender based classification in service law.

21. Vanashakti v. Union of India, 2026 INSC 761, 29 July 2026, Surya Kant CJI, Joymalya Bagchi and Vipul M. Pancholi JJ. Prior environmental clearance under the EIA Notification, 2006 remains the rule. The Union may create a narrow, time bound exception by delegated legislation under section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, so the one time 2017 Notification was upheld, but the 2021 office memorandum was quashed as a perpetual amnesty. Exam angle: Common Cause (2017) and Alembic Pharmaceuticals (2020).

22. OTIS Elevator Co. (India) v. Rashmi Handa, 2026 INSC 756, 29 July 2026, P.S. Narasimha and Alok Aradhe JJ. Passenger lifts are common carriers owing a heightened duty of care, and a maintenance contractor that fails to fix known defects is liable for deficiency in service. Exam angle: standard of care in tort and consumer law.

23. Lokesh B.H. v. State of Karnataka, 2026 INSC 784, 3 August 2026, Sanjay Karol and N. Kotiswar Singh JJ. Section 498A IPC can extend to a live-in relationship that has the attributes of marriage and an established intent to marry, with the Arnesh Kumar arrest safeguards applying. Exam angle: D. Velusamy (2010) on relationships “in the nature of marriage”, and sections 85 and 86 BNS.

24. SEBI v. Rajeev Vasant Sheth, 2026 INSC 826, 11 August 2026, Sanjay Karol and N. Kotiswar Singh JJ. Once possession of unpublished price sensitive information and trading while it was current are shown, the purpose of the trade and the size of the profit are irrelevant. The defences in Regulation 4(1) of the insider trading regulations are not exhaustive, but new ones must be of a similar kind. Exam angle: SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015.

25. Karnataka Power Transmission Corporation v. Rekha, 2026 INSC 847, 12 August 2026, Sanjay Karol and N. Kotiswar Singh JJ. Electricity authorities face strict, not absolute, liability for electrocution, disputed facts belong before the competent forum rather than a writ court. Exam angle: Rylands v. Fletcher, M.C. Mehta (1987) and M.P. Electricity Board v. Shail Kumar (2002).

26. State of U.P. v. Jai Bir Singh, 2026 INSC 897, 20 August 2026, nine judge bench led by Surya Kant CJI. On the meaning of “industry”, the bench held that the triple test of Bangalore Water Supply (1978) continues to govern disputes pending under the now repealed Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, while the definition in the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 must be read on its own text. Exam angle: the most important labour law ruling of the year.

27. Bhumika Trust v. Union of India, 2026 INSC 904, 21 August 2026, Surya Kant CJI, Augustine George Masih and K. Vinod Chandran JJ (2:1, Justice Chandran dissenting). The three year practice rule for civil judge recruitment set in May 2025 was relaxed: fresh law graduates may apply until 31 March 2027, and from 1 April 2027 one year of practice will be needed, with training and clerkship after selection. Exam angle: Article 234 and judicial service eligibility.

28. Jaskaran Jeet Singh Deol v. State of Punjab, 2026 INSC 1022, 21 September 2026, Ujjal Bhuyan and Atul S. Chandurkar JJ. Where an accused is released because the arrest violated Article 22, re-arrest needs prior approval of the Magistrate, and a later charge sheet cannot validate an unconstitutional arrest. Exam angle: grounds of arrest after Pankaj Bansal (2023) and Prabir Purkayastha (2024).

29. Mahanadi Coalfields v. GSCO Infrastructure, 2026 INSC 1038, 23 September 2026, Sanjay Kumar and Sanjeev Sachdeva JJ. Holding hearings at a place does not by itself make it the juridical seat of arbitration; seat and venue are different. Exam angle: BGS SGS Soma (2019).

30. Just Rights for Children Alliance v. S. Harish, October 2026 (reported 17 October), J.B. Pardiwala and K. Vinod Chandran JJ. The right to access and use the internet was declared a fundamental right under Article 21 read with Article 19(1)(a), including for children, and blanket bans on children’s access were called disproportionate. The Union was directed to build a national database of hash values and URLs of child sexual exploitation and abuse material. Exam angle: Anuradha Bhasin (2020) and the 2024 ruling in the same case.

Quick map: judgments by syllabus subject

Subject	Entries
Constitutional Law	5, 7, 8, 9, 10, 13, 15, 18, 28, 30
Administrative and Service Law	6, 20, 27
Criminal Law and Evidence	1, 3, 12, 14, 23
Family Law	2, 19
Contract and Arbitration	11, 29
Torts	17, 22, 25
Company, Tax and Labour Law	4, 16, 24, 26
Environmental Law	21

For each case, write one line on the issue, one on the holding and one on the older precedent it builds on, and revise the list once in November and once in the final week. Our last 50 days plan shows where to fit this in, and our October 2026 legal current affairs covers rulings after this list closes.

Turn reading into marks. CLAT PG 2027 Judgment Passages gives you the 2026 rulings as timed passage sets, with the linked older precedents explained, in a printable PDF.

Frequently asked questions

Are recent judgments really asked in CLAT PG?

The official syllabus says passages are extracts from court decisions, statutes and regulations, so recent rulings are a natural source, alongside older landmarks.

What is the cut off date for judgments for CLAT PG 2027?

There is no official cut off. Papers are usually set some weeks before the exam, so judgments up to about October 2026 are the realistic outer limit.

*This article is general information, not legal advice.*

Get one law MCQ a day, free, on Telegram

A daily question for CLAT, AIBE, NET and judiciary with the answer, plus alerts when exam dates, admit cards and new free mocks are released. No spam.

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18 October 2026

CLAT PG 2027: Exam Date, Pattern, Syllabus and Seats

All India CLAT Open Mock: Sunday 15 November

Free full-length CLAT 2027 mock for UG and PG, with explained answers, an All India rank and free packs for the top ranks. Registration takes 30 seconds.

Last updated: 18 October 2026

Short answer: CLAT 2027, which also decides admission to the one year LL.M. at the participating National Law Universities, will be held on Sunday, 6 December 2026, from 2:00 pm to 4:00 pm (2:00 pm to 4:40 pm for PwD candidates). The PG paper has 120 objective questions in a single section, carries 1 mark per question with a deduction of 0.25 for each wrong answer, and is built on passages taken from judgments, statutes and regulations. Applications close on 31 October 2026 at 11:59 pm. You need an LL.B. with 50 per cent marks (45 per cent for SC, ST and PwD candidates), and final year students taking their exams in 2027 can apply. There is no upper age limit.

This guide is built from the Consortium of National Law Universities’ own press release, PG eligibility, PG syllabus and PG instructions pages for CLAT 2027, the 2027 to 28 information brochures of individual NLUs, and the published recruitment advertisements of public sector undertakings. Where the official pages are silent, we say so rather than guess.

CLAT PG 2027 at a glance

Item	Official position for CLAT 2027
Conducting body	Consortium of National Law Universities (26 member NLUs participate)
Exam date and time	Sunday, 6 December 2026, 2:00 pm to 4:00 pm; PwD candidates 2:00 pm to 4:40 pm (subject to revision)
Mode	Offline, at notified test centres
Application window	3 August 2026 to 31 October 2026 (final submission by 11:59 pm)
Application fee	Rs 4,000 for General, OBC and NRI candidates; Rs 3,500 for SC, ST, BPL and PwD candidates; online payment only, non refundable
Previous years’ papers	Optional, Rs 500 extra
Admit card	Release date to be announced on the Consortium website
Questions and duration	120 objective questions, 120 minutes, one section
Marking	+1 for a correct answer, minus 0.25 for a wrong answer
Tie breaker	Higher age first, then a computerised draw of lots

The Consortium fixed the date and the application window at meetings of its Executive Committee and Governing Body on 18 July 2026, and announced them in a press release dated 22 July 2026. Some coaching websites carried a date of 7 December for a while; the official press release and the PG instructions page both say 6 December 2026.

Eligibility for the LL.M. through CLAT 2027

Qualifying degree: an LL.B. degree or an equivalent examination.
Minimum marks: 50 per cent or an equivalent grade; 45 per cent or an equivalent grade for SC, ST and PwD candidates.
Final year students: candidates appearing in the qualifying examination in 2027 may apply, but must produce proof of passing at the time of admission, failing which they lose the right to be considered.
Age: no upper age limit for the PG programme.
Foreign nationals: not eligible to take CLAT. Foreign national seats are filled by each NLU directly, as described in its brochure. NRI and NRI sponsored seats are also not allotted by the Consortium.

Exam pattern and how the questions are framed

The PG paper is a single objective section of 120 questions to be answered in 120 minutes, which gives you one minute per question including reading time. According to the Consortium’s syllabus page, the questions are set on extracts from primary legal sources, such as a court decision, a statute or a regulation, with a set of questions following each extract. The questions test whether you can:

identify the issues, arguments and viewpoints discussed in the passage;
recognise related legal issues and facts, including those connected with the judgment or statute from which the extract is taken;
summarise the passage; and
apply your knowledge of the area of law that the passage deals with.

In practice this means two skills are being tested at once: fast, accurate reading of judicial language, and a working knowledge of the leading cases and provisions in each subject, because many questions ask about a related case or provision that is not in the passage at all.

What negative marking means for you

With minus 0.25 per wrong answer, a blind guess among four options is worth only about +0.06 marks on average, close to nothing. If you can eliminate even one option with confidence, guessing between the remaining three has a small positive expected value. A sensible rule is to answer when you can rule out at least one option and to skip pure guesses, especially in the last ten minutes.

Official syllabus: subjects covered

The Consortium describes the PG paper as drawing on the mandatory subjects taught at the undergraduate level. The CLAT 2027 PG syllabus page lists these thirteen subjects:

Subject	Typical passage source
Constitutional Law	Supreme Court judgments on fundamental rights, federalism, elections
Jurisprudence	Theories of law, rights and duties, precedent, judicial reasoning
Administrative Law	Natural justice, delegated legislation, judicial review of action
Law of Contract	Indian Contract Act, 1872, Specific Relief Act, arbitration clauses
Torts	Negligence, strict and absolute liability, consumer cases
Family Law	Hindu and Muslim personal law, maintenance, succession
Criminal Law	BNS, BNSS and BSA, plus older IPC and CrPC judgments
Property Law	Transfer of Property Act, 1882, easements, land laws
Company Law	Companies Act, 2013, insolvency, securities regulation
Public International Law	Treaties, State responsibility, law of the sea, human rights
Tax Law	Income tax, GST, tax treaties
Environmental Law	Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, clearances, the NGT
Labour and Industrial Law	Labour codes, industrial disputes, service jurisprudence

The right hand column is our own guide to where passages usually come from, not part of the official syllabus. Note that some unofficial lists online add Intellectual Property Rights and leave out Labour and Industrial Law. The official CLAT 2027 list does the opposite, so give labour law proper time.

Preparing on a tight timeline? The Lexfolio exam packs bring together subject notes mapped to the official CLAT PG syllabus, passage based practice sets and full length mocks in the 120 question format.

How to apply before 31 October 2026

Register on the CLAT 2027 page of consortiumofnlus.ac.in with your own mobile number and e-mail address. An OTP sent to the mobile number validates the registration.
Log in with the mobile number and password, choose the PG programme and fill in your details, test centre preferences and NLU preferences.
Upload the required documents. If you claim a reservation, keep the certificate ready: originals have to be produced at the allotted university at admission.
Pay the fee online. Bank transaction charges shown on the payment gateway are borne by the candidate.
Submit before 11:59 pm on 31 October 2026 and save the confirmation. Do not leave payment for the last evening, when portals tend to slow down.

The Consortium has said that seat allotment and admission offers are provisional and do not by themselves create a right to admission, and that it may cancel a test city or centre and shift candidates to another.

LL.M. seats at NLUs: sample intake for 2027 to 28

The Consortium does not publish a single all India seat figure on its PG pages. Intake, reservation and specialisations are set out in each NLU’s information brochure, and NLUs may change seat numbers and their break up. The table below gives the LL.M. intake stated in four brochures published for CLAT 2027.

NLU	LL.M. intake stated in the CLAT 2027 brochure	Notes
NLSIU Bengaluru	120 seats for 2027 to 28	Includes horizontal reservation of 30 seats for Karnataka students, 36 for women and 6 for PwD candidates
GNLU Gandhinagar	68 seats	Across corporate, constitutional, criminal and IP specialisations; GNLU Silvassa lists a further 33 seats allotted through CLAT
NALSAR Hyderabad	66 seats	50 All India and 16 for Telangana residents
RMLNLU Lucknow	48 seats plus 7 supernumerary	Reserved seats are for Uttar Pradesh domiciled SC, ST, OBC and EWS candidates

Read the brochure of every NLU you list as a preference. Domicile reservation, specialisation wise allocation and fees differ widely. NLSIU’s brochure, for example, states a total LL.M. fee of Rs 5,99,000 for the General category, subject to approval by its governing bodies.

PSUs that recruit through CLAT PG scores

Several central public sector undertakings shortlist law officers on the basis of CLAT PG marks, followed by a group discussion or interview. There is no fixed official list: each PSU decides every year and issues its own advertisement, usually around the CLAT application window, asking for the CLAT roll number. The table shows the recruitments we could confirm for the last cycle (CLAT 2026).

PSU and post	Key terms in the CLAT 2026 cycle
POWERGRID: Officer Trainee (Law), Advt. CC/06/2025 dated 23 October 2025	7 posts; full time LL.B. with 60 per cent (45 per cent for SC, ST and PwBD); upper age 28 as on 5 December 2025; weightage of CLAT 2026 PG marks 85 per cent, group discussion 3 per cent, interview 12 per cent; earlier CLAT results not valid
NTPC: Assistant Law Officer, advertised January 2026	6 posts; full time LL.B. with 60 per cent (55 per cent for SC and PwBD); upper age 30; only CLAT 2026 PG scores accepted; last date 16 January 2026

Other PSUs have used CLAT PG scores in earlier years, but past use does not guarantee a vacancy this year. Track the careers pages of the major Maharatna and Navratna companies from November onwards, and note the age and LL.B. percentage conditions, which are often stricter than CLAT’s own eligibility. POWERGRID’s advertisement, for instance, required a minimum CLAT score of 40 per cent for unreserved and 30 per cent for reserved vacancies where CLAT itself sets none.

One caution: in September 2025 a Division Bench of the Delhi High Court set aside a National Highways Authority of India notification that made CLAT PG scores the basis for recruiting lawyers, calling the criterion arbitrary. PSU recruitment through CLAT therefore remains open to legal challenge where the score bears no clear link to the job.

What to do with the weeks left

Finish the application first. Everything else waits until the form is submitted and the fee is paid.
Build a list of 50 to 60 leading judgments across the thirteen subjects and read the key paragraphs, not headnotes. Our list of important Supreme Court judgments for CLAT PG 2027 is a starting point for 2026.
Take at least eight timed mocks before the exam and review every wrong answer. Our last 50 days strategy sets out a week by week plan.
Keep up with legal news, since recent judgments often appear as passages. See our monthly legal current affairs for October 2026.

One place for the whole syllabus. Browse the Lexfolio exam packs for CLAT PG 2027: subject wise notes, judgment passages with questions, and timed mocks with explained answers, in printable PDF.

Frequently asked questions

When is CLAT PG 2027?

On Sunday, 6 December 2026, from 2:00 pm to 4:00 pm. PwD candidates get time until 4:40 pm. The Consortium has said the timing is subject to revision, so check the website before the exam.

What is the last date to apply for CLAT 2027?

31 October 2026, with final submission allowed until 11:59 pm.

How many questions are there in CLAT PG and is there negative marking?

There are 120 objective questions in one section, to be answered in 120 minutes. Each correct answer earns 1 mark and each wrong answer costs 0.25 marks.

Can final year LL.B. students take CLAT PG 2027?

Yes. Candidates appearing in the qualifying examination in 2027 may apply, but they must show proof of passing with the required percentage at the time of admission.

Is CLAT PG 2027 computer based?

No. The Consortium’s PG instructions state that the examination will be held in offline mode at notified test centres.

Which PSUs will recruit through CLAT PG 2027?

That will be known only when each PSU issues its advertisement. In the CLAT 2026 cycle, POWERGRID and NTPC advertised law officer posts based on CLAT 2026 PG scores. Check the careers pages of PSUs regularly from November.

*This article is general information, not legal advice.*

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18 October 2026

Legal Heir Certificate UP: Varisan Praman Patra Guide

Last updated: 18 October 2026

Short answer: In Uttar Pradesh, a legal heir certificate (often called varisan praman patra or uttaradhikar praman patra) is issued by the Tehsil where the deceased lived, after the revenue staff verify the family. Apply at the Tehsil, or through the e-District UP portal or a Jan Seva Kendra where your district offers the service online, with the death certificate, an affidavit listing all heirs, identity proofs and proof of relationship. In villages, a certified extract of the parivar register (family register) kept by the Gram Panchayat is usually the strongest proof of who the family members are. The certificate identifies heirs for administrative purposes; it is not a succession certificate and does not by itself transfer property.

What the certificate is used for

Family pension, gratuity and provident fund claims of a deceased employee or pensioner.
Claims for dues, compensation or insurance where the payer asks for proof of heirs.
Transfer of electricity, water, gas and telephone connections, and of house tax or municipal records.
Bank claims where the bank accepts it with an indemnity instead of a court certificate.

It is evidence of relationship, accepted at the discretion of the office concerned. Where an institution insists on statutory protection before paying out debts or securities, it will ask for a court issued succession certificate instead. See our guide to the succession certificate procedure for that route.

Three documents people confuse

Document	Issued by	Purpose
Legal heir certificate (varisan praman patra)	Tehsil (revenue department)	Identifies the surviving heirs for administrative claims
Parivar register extract (kutumb register ki nakal)	Gram Panchayat, through its secretary	Certified copy of the village family register showing household members
Succession certificate	District Judge, under the Indian Succession Act, 1925	Authority to collect debts and securities of the deceased, with statutory protection to payers

Who can apply

Any heir of the deceased, usually the spouse, a son or a daughter, can apply. The application should name every surviving heir, including married daughters and heirs living elsewhere. Who counts as an heir depends on the personal law that applies to the deceased (for Hindus, the Hindu Succession Act, 1956), so prepare the family tree carefully before applying.

Documents checklist

Document	Notes
Death certificate of the deceased	From the Gram Panchayat or municipal body where the death was registered
Application form	Tehsil form, or the online form where available
Affidavit of the applicant	Lists all heirs with name, age, relationship and address, and states that no heir has been left out
Identity proof of the applicant and heirs	Aadhaar, voter ID or similar
Proof of relationship	Parivar register extract in villages, ration card, birth certificates, school records, service records
Address proof of the deceased	Shows the Tehsil’s jurisdiction
Passport size photographs	As required by the Tehsil

Step by step process

Get the death certificate and, in a village, a certified copy of the parivar register showing the deceased and the family.
Prepare and notarise the affidavit listing all heirs. Our Hindi guide on shapath patra format and notary process explains how affidavits are attested.
Apply. Several district administration websites, Chandauli for example, list the legal heir certificate as a Tehsil service with a link to the e-District UP portal. Where your district has not put it online, submit the application at the Tehsil office. Keep the application or receipt number.
Verification. Revenue staff verify the family details. Be available and keep the originals ready.
Issue. If the verification report is satisfactory, the Tehsil issues the certificate. Check spellings and the list of heirs before you leave, since corrections later take time.

Fee and timeline

We could not confirm a single statewide fee or time limit for this certificate from official sources. Expect a nominal application or service charge at the Tehsil or e-District centre, plus the stamp paper and notary charges for the affidavit. The time taken depends mainly on the field verification. Ask the Tehsil for the expected date when you apply, and use the application number to follow up.

The parivar register in villages

Every Gram Panchayat in UP keeps a family register under the U.P. Panchayat Raj (Maintenance of Family Registers) Rules, 1970. It lists each household and its members. Certified copies (nakal) are given by the Gram Panchayat secretary. The State has been working on digitising these registers so that copies can be obtained online; check with your Gram Panchayat or block office whether your village’s register is available that way.

If a name is missing or wrong, apply for correction before applying for the legal heir certificate. Under the 1970 Rules, the Assistant Development Officer (Panchayat) decides inclusion after an inquiry, and an appeal lies to the Sub-Divisional Officer within 30 days.

Agricultural land: varasat in the khatauni

For agricultural land, the heirs’ names are entered in the record of rights (khatauni) through varasat, which is a separate process under the U.P. Revenue Code, 2006:

Section 33: a person who obtains possession of land by succession reports it to the Revenue Inspector. If the case is undisputed, the succession is recorded in the khatauni; if disputed, the matter goes to the Tehsildar.
Section 35: the Tehsildar inquires and decides disputed cases. A person aggrieved can appeal to the Sub-Divisional Officer within 30 days.

For houses and plots in towns, heirs apply for mutation in the municipal records, usually with the death certificate, legal heir certificate and consent affidavits of the other heirs.

Free sample: heirship affidavit (short)

AFFIDAVIT

I, [name], son/daughter/wife of [name], aged [ ] years, resident of [village/mohalla, post, Tehsil, District], do hereby solemnly affirm and state as follows:

1. That my [relationship], late [name of deceased], son/daughter/wife of [name], resident of [address], died on [date] at [place]. A copy of the death certificate is attached.

2. That the deceased is survived by the following legal heirs only:
(a) [name], [relationship], aged [ ], resident of [ ]
(b) [name], [relationship], aged [ ], resident of [ ]
(c) [name], [relationship], aged [ ], resident of [ ]

3. That apart from the persons named above, the deceased has no other legal heir, and no heir has been concealed.

4. That this affidavit is being given for obtaining a legal heir certificate from the Tehsil [name].

Verification: I, the above deponent, verify that the contents of paragraphs 1 to 4 are true to my knowledge, nothing material has been concealed and no part is false. Verified at [place] on [date].

[Signature of deponent]

A false affidavit can lead to cancellation of the certificate and criminal proceedings, so list every heir.

Need the complete, editable set? The Lexfolio Will and Succession Kit includes no objection affidavits for legal heirs, a relinquishment deed, a family settlement memorandum, a succession certificate petition and will formats, with a checklist for heirs dealing with banks, pensions and land records.

Common problems and how to avoid them

A heir left out: married daughters are heirs under the Hindu Succession Act. Omitting anyone can lead to objections and cancellation.
Name mismatch across Aadhaar, ration card and parivar register: correct the records first, or file an affidavit explaining the variation. Our guide on affidavits for name change and address proof helps.
Death not registered: get the death registered first; delayed registration has its own procedure.
Family dispute: where heirs disagree, expect objections and delay; a contested question of heirship is ultimately decided by the civil court.

If you are planning ahead for your own family, a valid will avoids most of these steps. See how to write a will in India.

Frequently asked questions

Who issues the legal heir certificate in UP?

The Tehsil of the area where the deceased ordinarily lived, after verification by revenue staff.

Can I apply online on e-District UP?

In districts that offer the service online, yes, through the e-District UP portal or a Jan Seva Kendra. Otherwise apply at the Tehsil office. Check your district’s website or ask at the Tehsil.

Is a parivar register copy the same as a legal heir certificate?

No. The parivar register extract shows household members recorded by the Gram Panchayat. It is strong supporting evidence, but offices that ask for a legal heir certificate usually want the Tehsil certificate.

Can a legal heir certificate transfer land?

Not by itself. Agricultural land is entered in the heirs’ names through varasat under the U.P. Revenue Code, 2006; urban property through mutation in municipal records.

Do banks accept a legal heir certificate?

Many do for smaller claims, usually with an indemnity bond from the heirs. For larger amounts or securities, a bank may insist on a succession certificate from the District Judge.

*This article is general information, not legal advice.*

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18 October 2026

How to File a Cheque Bounce Case: Complaint Guide

Last updated: 18 October 2026

Short answer: If the drawer does not pay within 15 days of receiving your section 138 demand notice, file a written complaint under sections 138 and 142 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 before the Judicial Magistrate of the first class (or Metropolitan Magistrate) within one month from the day after those 15 days end. File in the court having jurisdiction over the branch of your bank where you deposited the cheque. Attach the original cheque, the return memo, the notice with proof of delivery and your evidence affidavit. The case is tried summarily, the court may order up to 20 per cent interim compensation, and the parties can settle at any stage.

Where the complaint fits in the timeline

Step	Time limit	Provision
Demand notice	Within 30 days of the bank’s return memo	Section 138, proviso (b)
Drawer’s time to pay	15 days from receipt of notice	Section 138, proviso (c)
Complaint	Within one month of the cause of action (the day after the 15 days expire)	Section 142(1)(b)
Delayed complaint	Court may take cognizance if the complainant shows sufficient cause	Proviso to section 142(1)(b)

If you have not yet sent the notice, start with our guide to the cheque bounce notice under section 138, which includes a free notice sample and a worked example of the dates. A complaint filed before the 15 day period ends is premature, so count carefully.

Who can file

The payee or the holder in due course of the cheque. Section 142(1)(a) requires a complaint in writing by one of them.
A company or firm files through an authorised representative, with a board resolution or authority letter. In A.C. Narayanan v. State of Maharashtra, (2014) 11 SCC 790, the Supreme Court accepted complaints through a power of attorney holder, but held that the holder should have witnessed the transaction or have due knowledge of it, and the complaint should say so.

Name every person liable. Where the drawer is a company, section 141 also makes liable every person who was in charge of and responsible for the conduct of its business when the offence was committed, so name the directors or partners who fit that description and plead their role specifically.

Which court

Section 142(2), inserted in 2015, fixes territorial jurisdiction:

if the cheque was delivered for collection through an account, the court within whose local limits the branch of the bank where the payee or holder in due course maintains that account is situated;
if the cheque was presented for payment otherwise (for example, over the counter), the court within whose local limits the drawer’s bank branch is situated.

Section 143 says the case is tried by a Judicial Magistrate of the first class or a Metropolitan Magistrate. Some districts have designated particular courts for NI Act cases, so confirm the right court at the filing counter.

What to write in the complaint

The parties, with full addresses, phone numbers and e-mail IDs of the accused (useful for electronic service of summons).
The underlying debt or liability, with dates and documents.
Cheque details: number, date, amount, drawee bank and branch.
Date of presentation, date of return and the reason in the memo.
Date of notice, mode of dispatch, date of delivery (or refusal), and the drawer’s reply, if any.
Failure to pay within 15 days, and the date the cause of action arose.
Facts showing limitation and jurisdiction are satisfied.
The prayer: summon, try and punish the accused under section 138, and award compensation.

In Sanjabij Tari v. Kishore S. Borcar (25 September 2025), the Supreme Court directed that every complaint carry a synopsis in a prescribed format at the front. Check the format your High Court or district court has notified.

Documents to file

Document	Why
Original cheque	Primary evidence; keep certified photocopies
Original return memo	Proves dishonour; section 146 lets the court presume dishonour from the bank’s slip or memo, unless disproved
Copy of demand notice	Proves the statutory demand
Postal receipt, tracking report, delivery proof, e-mail or WhatsApp delivery screenshots	Proves service
Reply of the drawer, if any	Shows the defence raised
Documents of the debt (agreement, invoice, ledger, bank transfer)	Supports the legally enforceable liability
Evidence affidavit of the complainant	Section 145 allows the complainant’s evidence to be given on affidavit
Board resolution or authority letter (company)	Authority of the person filing
Affidavit verifying e-mail and mobile details of the accused	Supports electronic service of summons

What happens after filing

Cognizance and summons

The Magistrate examines the complaint and the affidavit and, if satisfied, takes cognizance and issues summons. In Sanjabij Tari the Supreme Court indicated that no pre-cognizance summons to the accused under section 223 of the BNSS is needed in NI Act complaints. It also directed that summons be served through multiple modes, including e-mail, mobile number or WhatsApp where the complainant gives verified details, as well as dasti service by the complainant with an affidavit of service, and that the summons tell the accused about an online option to pay the cheque amount at the initial stage.

Summary trial

Section 143 directs summary trial. In a summary trial the Magistrate can impose imprisonment up to one year and a fine exceeding five thousand rupees. If a longer sentence may be needed, or summary trial is otherwise undesirable, the Magistrate must hear the parties, record reasons and try the case as a regular summons case. The trial should, as far as practicable, proceed day to day and the court is to try to finish it within six months of the complaint.

Interim compensation under section 143A

Point	Rule
When	In a summary or summons trial, after the accused pleads not guilty; in other cases, after charge is framed
How much	Up to 20 per cent of the cheque amount
Time to pay	60 days from the order, extendable by up to 30 days for sufficient cause
If the accused is acquitted	Complainant repays it with interest at the RBI bank rate, within 60 days (extendable by 30)
Recovery	As if it were a fine
Adjustment	Deducted from any fine or compensation finally awarded

The power is discretionary. In Rakesh Ranjan Shrivastava v. State of Jharkhand, 2024 INSC 205, the Supreme Court held that interim compensation is not automatic: the court must see a prima facie case, weigh the defence, may consider the accused’s financial distress, and must record brief reasons for the amount.

Settlement and compounding

Section 147 makes every offence under the Act compoundable. In Meters and Instruments v. Kanchan Mehta, (2018) 1 SCC 560, the Supreme Court said that where the accused pays the cheque amount with interest and costs as assessed by the court, the court may close the proceedings. Sanjabij Tari revised the graded costs first set in Damodar S. Prabhu v. Sayed Babalal H., (2010) 5 SCC 663, so that settlement before defence evidence carries no extra cost while later settlement costs a percentage of the cheque amount. The full table is in our section 138 notice guide.

Punishment and appeal

On conviction, the drawer faces imprisonment up to two years, or fine up to twice the cheque amount, or both (section 138). In an appeal against conviction, the appellate court may order a deposit of at least 20 per cent of the fine or compensation awarded (section 148).

Free sample: skeleton of a section 138 complaint

IN THE COURT OF THE JUDICIAL MAGISTRATE FIRST CLASS, [PLACE]
Complaint Case No. ____ of [year]
[Name, address, phone, e-mail] … Complainant
versus
[Name, address, phone, e-mail] … Accused

COMPLAINT UNDER SECTIONS 138 AND 142 OF THE NEGOTIABLE INSTRUMENTS ACT, 1881

1. The accused owed the complainant Rs [ ] towards [loan dated [ ] / goods supplied under invoice no. [ ]].

2. In discharge of that liability the accused issued cheque no. [ ] dated [ ] for Rs [ ], drawn on [bank, branch].

3. The complainant deposited the cheque in his account with [bank, branch], within the jurisdiction of this Court. It was returned unpaid on [date] with the remark “[reason]”.

4. The complainant sent a demand notice dated [ ] by Speed Post and e-mail, delivered on [date]. The accused failed to pay the cheque amount within 15 days of receipt. The cause of action arose on [date], and this complaint is within the period prescribed by section 142(1)(b).

PRAYER: The complainant prays that this Court take cognizance, summon the accused, try and punish him under section 138 of the Act, direct interim compensation under section 143A, and award compensation equal to [twice] the cheque amount.

[List of documents]
[Signature, verification, date and place]

Need the complete, editable set? The Lexfolio Cheque Bounce Case Kit gives you editable formats for the full complaint, evidence affidavit, section 143A application and settlement terms, with a worked timeline table and filing checklist.

Common mistakes

Filing before the 15 days run out, or after one month without a delay application.
Filing in the drawer’s city when the cheque was deposited in your own account elsewhere.
Omitting the directors in charge where the drawer is a company, or naming them without pleading their role.
Not filing the original cheque and memo.
Adding unrelated claims; recover other dues separately, for example after a legal notice for recovery of money.

Frequently asked questions

What is the time limit to file a cheque bounce case?

One month from the date the cause of action arises, which is the day after the 15 day payment period expires. Later filing needs a delay condonation application showing sufficient cause.

Can I file a cheque bounce case online?

Many district courts accept e-filing through the eCourts services, and the originals are then produced as directed. Check what your district court currently allows.

Do I need to appear in court every date?

The complainant’s evidence can be given on affidavit under section 145, which reduces appearances, but the complainant or authorised representative should attend when required for cross-examination.

Can I file a civil suit as well?

Yes. A section 138 complaint and a civil suit for recovery of the debt are separate remedies and can run side by side.

Is interim compensation automatic?

No. Section 143A uses “may”, and the Supreme Court has held it discretionary. Ask for it by a separate application at the right stage.

*This article is general information, not legal advice.*

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18 October 2026

Succession Certificate Procedure: Court, Fee, Documents

Last updated: 18 October 2026

Short answer: A succession certificate is granted by a civil court under Part X (sections 370 to 390) of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 to let an heir collect the debts and securities of a person who has died, such as bank balances, fixed deposits, shares, debentures and amounts owed to the deceased. You file a verified petition before the District Judge of the place where the deceased ordinarily resided, listing the heirs and the debts and securities. The court issues public notice, hears any objections, decides summarily and grants the certificate, often on a security bond. Court fee is charged on the value of the assets at rates that differ from State to State. A succession certificate does not cover land or houses.

Who needs a succession certificate?

You usually need one when a person dies without a will, leaving money or securities that the holder (a bank, company, depository, employer or debtor) will not release to the family without a court document. Section 381 makes the certificate conclusive against the persons who owe those debts or are liable on those securities, and protects anyone who pays the certificate holder in good faith. That statutory protection is why institutions ask for it.

You may not need one where a valid nomination exists and the institution pays the nominee, or where the institution settles small claims on an indemnity under its own policy. Remember that a nominee generally receives the money as a trustee for the legal heirs, so nomination does not decide who ultimately owns it.

Succession certificate vs legal heir certificate vs probate

Point	Succession certificate	Legal heir certificate	Probate
Issued by	District Judge (or a court empowered under section 388)	Revenue authority, usually the Tehsildar	Court of competent jurisdiction
When used	No will; to collect debts and securities	To identify family members for administrative purposes: pension, family claims, utility and record transfers	There is a will; certifies the will and the executor’s authority
Covers	Only the debts and securities listed in it	Does not transfer any asset by itself	The estate covered by the will
Legal effect	Conclusive against debtors; indemnity to those who pay in good faith (section 381)	Evidence of relationship; accepted at the discretion of the receiving office	Conclusive as to the validity of the will
Compulsory?	Required by many institutions in practice	As required by the office concerned	No longer mandatory anywhere after section 213 was omitted by the Repealing and Amending Act, 2025, but still available

For immovable property left without a will, heirs normally apply for mutation in revenue or municipal records on the basis of inheritance. In Uttar Pradesh, our guide to the legal heir certificate and varasat in UP explains the revenue route.

Which court?

Under section 371, the application goes to the District Judge within whose jurisdiction the deceased ordinarily resided at the time of death. If the deceased had no fixed place of residence, it goes to the District Judge within whose jurisdiction any part of the property is found. Section 388 allows the State Government to empower courts below the District Judge to exercise these powers, in which case they have concurrent jurisdiction, so check which court in your district hears these petitions.

What the petition must contain

Section 372 requires a petition signed and verified like a plaint under the Code of Civil Procedure, setting out:

the time of the deceased’s death;
the deceased’s ordinary residence at that time and, if outside the court’s limits, the property within its limits;
the family or other near relatives of the deceased and their residences;
the right in which the petitioner claims;
the absence of any impediment under section 370 or any other law to the grant;
the debts and securities for which the certificate is sought.

A false statement in the verification is a punishable offence, so list every heir, including married daughters and heirs living abroad.

Documents to collect

Document	Purpose
Death certificate	Proves date and place of death
Proof of the deceased’s ordinary residence	Establishes the court’s jurisdiction
Family tree with names, ages, relationship and addresses of all heirs	Clause (c) of section 372
Statements, passbooks, FD receipts, share and demat statements, debt documents	Identify and value each debt and security
Identity proof of the petitioner	Identification
No objection affidavits from other heirs, if they consent	Speeds up an uncontested petition
Legal heir certificate or family register extract, if available	Supporting evidence of relationship

For the format of the consent affidavits, see our guide to affidavit formats.

Step by step procedure

File the petition with the documents and the required court fee or deposit as per local practice.
Notice. If the judge finds ground to entertain it, a hearing date is fixed. Under section 373(1), notice goes to persons the judge thinks should receive special notice (usually the other heirs), is posted in the court house and is published in any other manner the judge directs, commonly a newspaper.
Objections and evidence. Anyone claiming a better right may object. The petitioner usually files an affidavit in evidence.
Summary decision. The judge decides the right to the certificate in a summary manner. If the question is too intricate for summary decision, the certificate may be granted to the applicant who appears to have the best prima facie title (section 373(3)). Where several applicants have an interest, the judge may consider the extent of each one’s interest and their fitness.
Security bond. Under section 375, security is compulsory where the judge proceeds under section 373(3) or (4) and optional in other cases. The bond, with sureties or other security, ensures the holder accounts for what is collected and protects others entitled to it.
Grant. The certificate specifies the debts and securities it covers and the powers granted, such as receiving interest or dividends, or negotiating or transferring securities.

Court fee and timeline

Court fee is ad valorem: a percentage of the value of the debts and securities covered, fixed by each State’s court fee law. Rates, slabs and caps differ widely between States, so check the current schedule in your State before valuing the assets, and value them accurately, since the certificate covers only what is listed.

Timeline: the Act fixes no deadline. The minimum is the notice period fixed by the court plus the hearing dates; a contested petition can take much longer. Filing consent affidavits from all other heirs at the start is the single most effective way to shorten it.

Free sample: opening paragraphs of the petition

IN THE COURT OF THE DISTRICT JUDGE, [DISTRICT]
Succession Case No. ____ of [year]
In the matter of the estate of late [name], resident of [address]
[Name of petitioner] … Petitioner

PETITION UNDER SECTION 372 OF THE INDIAN SUCCESSION ACT, 1925 FOR GRANT OF A SUCCESSION CERTIFICATE

1. Late [name] died intestate on [date] at [place]. A copy of the death certificate is annexed.

2. At the time of death the deceased ordinarily resided at [address], within the jurisdiction of this Court.

3. The deceased left the following legal heirs: [name, relationship, age, address of each].

4. The petitioner is the [relationship] of the deceased and claims the certificate as [heir / on behalf of all heirs]. The other heirs have given their consent by affidavits annexed.

5. There is no impediment under section 370 of the Act or any other law to the grant of the certificate. The deceased left no will.

6. The debts and securities for which the certificate is sought are set out in the Schedule, with a total value of Rs [ ].

PRAYER: The petitioner prays that a succession certificate be granted to him/her in respect of the debts and securities in the Schedule, with power to receive interest and dividends and to negotiate or transfer them.

[Schedule of debts and securities]
[Verification and signature]

Need the complete, editable set? The Lexfolio Will and Succession Kit includes an editable succession certificate petition with schedule, consent affidavits for other heirs and a documents checklist, along with will, codicil and relinquishment deed formats.

After the grant

Extension: if more debts or securities come to light, apply to extend the certificate under section 376 instead of filing afresh.
Revocation: section 383 allows revocation if the proceedings were defective in substance, the grant was obtained by fraud or concealment, or by an untrue allegation of an essential fact, or for other listed reasons.
Appeal: an order granting, refusing or revoking a certificate is appealable to the High Court under section 384.
Not a final word on title: under section 387, the decision does not bar a later suit between the parties on the same right.

Planning ahead avoids all of this. A properly executed will, explained in our guide on how to write a will in India, saves your family a court petition for most assets.

Frequently asked questions

Can a succession certificate be used for a house or land?

No. It covers only the debts and securities listed in it. Immovable property passes by inheritance and is reflected through mutation, or through probate or letters of administration where there is a will or administration is needed.

Can one heir apply on behalf of all?

Yes. One heir commonly applies with the written consent of the others. The holder must account to the other heirs for their shares.

Is a legal heir certificate enough instead?

It depends on the institution. Many accept a legal heir certificate with indemnity for smaller amounts, but a legal heir certificate does not carry the statutory protection of section 381, so others insist on a succession certificate.

How much is the court fee?

It is a percentage of the value of the assets covered, set by your State’s court fee law. Check the current State schedule.

Where do I file if the deceased lived in one city and the bank is in another?

Before the District Judge of the place where the deceased ordinarily resided at the time of death, regardless of where the bank branch is.

*This article is general information, not legal advice.*

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18 October 2026

How to Write a Will in India: Rules and Free Sample

Last updated: 18 October 2026

Short answer: To make a valid will in India, write down clearly who gets which property, then sign it at the end in the presence of two witnesses, who must each sign it in your presence (section 63 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925). You must be an adult of sound mind and the will must be made freely. No stamp paper or particular format is required, and registration is optional, including in Uttar Pradesh after the Allahabad High Court’s 2024 ruling. Registration, or depositing the will with the Sub-Registrar in a sealed cover, does make it much harder to challenge or lose.

Validity checklist at a glance

Requirement	What the law says	Provision
Capacity	Every person of sound mind who is not a minor may dispose of property by will	Section 59, Indian Succession Act
Free will	A will obtained by fraud, coercion or importunity that takes away free agency is void	Section 61
Signature of testator	Signed or marked by the testator, or by another person in his presence and by his direction, placed so it is clear the writing is meant to take effect as a will	Section 63(a) and (b)
Attestation	At least two witnesses, each of whom saw the testator sign (or received his acknowledgement of the signature) and signed in his presence; they need not be present at the same time	Section 63(c)
Form	No particular form of attestation is necessary; plain paper is enough	Section 63(c)
Registration	Optional	Section 18, Registration Act, 1908

Who can make a will and over what property

Section 59 explains that a person who is ordinarily insane may make a will in a lucid interval, but no one can make a will while so intoxicated or ill that he does not know what he is doing. Blind or hearing impaired persons can make a will if they understand what they are doing.

A Hindu (including Buddhists, Jains and Sikhs) may bequeath any property he or she can dispose of, including an undivided interest in Mitakshara coparcenary property, under section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956. You can only give what you own: property held jointly with others passes only to the extent of your share. Muslims are governed by their personal law, under which a bequest generally cannot exceed one third of the estate (after funeral expenses and debts) without the consent of the heirs.

How to write your will, step by step

List your assets. Land and houses (with khasra, khatauni or registry details), bank accounts, fixed deposits, shares and mutual funds, insurance, vehicles, jewellery, business interests. Describe each one well enough that no one can confuse it.
Decide the beneficiaries. Use full names, relationship and age, and say what happens if a beneficiary dies before you.
Appoint an executor. A trusted person who will carry out the will. You can also name an alternate.
Add a residuary clause. Say who receives everything not specifically mentioned, including property you acquire later.
Explain unequal shares. If you leave out a natural heir, give a short reason. Courts treat an unexplained exclusion as one of the circumstances that may call for explanation.
Revoke earlier wills expressly, and date the document.
Sign before two witnesses on every page and at the end, and have both witnesses sign with their names and addresses.

Choosing witnesses

Pick two adults who are independent, likely to be available in future and not beneficiaries. Section 67 of the Indian Succession Act says a will is not invalid merely because a witness or the witness’s spouse benefits under it, but the gift to that witness or spouse is void. The Kerala High Court has observed that this rule may not apply to Hindu wills, because section 57 and Schedule III extend only selected provisions to them. Either way, an interested witness invites suspicion, so avoid it.

Witnesses matter after your death. Under section 67 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (which replaced section 68 of the Evidence Act), a document required by law to be attested cannot be used as evidence until at least one attesting witness, if alive and capable, has been called to prove its execution. The proviso that dispenses with this for registered documents expressly excludes wills. So even a registered will may need a witness to testify if it is disputed. Many people therefore choose younger witnesses and record their phone numbers and addresses.

Should you register the will?

Section 18 of the Registration Act, 1908 places wills among documents whose registration is optional, and section 27 allows a will to be presented for registration at any time. You have two options:

Register it at the Sub-Registrar’s office, appearing in person with your identity proof and witnesses. The registered copy is kept in the office records.
Deposit it in a sealed cover with the Registrar under sections 42 to 46. You can withdraw it during your lifetime, and after your death the Registrar opens it on application and copies it into the register.

Neither step is compulsory, and an unregistered will is not invalid. Registration helps by fixing the date and identity of the testator and reducing the risk of loss or forgery claims.

The Uttar Pradesh position

U.P. Act No. 27 of 2004 amended section 169(3) of the U.P. Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act, 1950 to require that wills of agricultural holdings be registered. In Pramila Tiwari v. Anil Kumar Mishra, 2024:AHC:85067-DB (May 2024), a Division Bench of the Allahabad High Court held that this requirement was repugnant to the Registration Act, 1908 and void to that extent. As a result, a will in Uttar Pradesh is not void merely because it is unregistered, whether it was made before or after the 2004 amendment. Registration remains advisable, particularly for land.

Is probate needed?

Section 213 of the Indian Succession Act used to bar anyone from establishing a right as executor or legatee in court without probate in certain cases, mainly wills of Hindus, Buddhists, Sikhs and Jains made in, or concerning immovable property in, the old presidency towns of Kolkata, Chennai and Mumbai. The Repealing and Amending Act, 2025 (assented to on 20 December 2025) omitted section 213, so probate is no longer mandatory anywhere in India. It is still available, and a probate granted by a court remains the strongest proof of a will when heirs are likely to dispute it or when a bank or institution insists on it.

Free sample: a short will

WILL

I, [full name], son/daughter/wife of [name], aged [ ] years, resident of [full address], being of sound mind and acting of my own free will, make this Will on [date]. I revoke all my earlier wills and codicils.

1. I appoint [name, relationship, address] as executor of this Will, and if he/she is unable or unwilling to act, [alternate name].

2. I give my house at [full address / registry details] to [name, relationship].

3. I give the balance in my savings account no. [ ] with [bank, branch] and my fixed deposits with that bank to [name] and [name] in equal shares.

4. I give all my remaining property, movable and immovable, including property acquired after this date, to [name].

5. If any beneficiary dies before me, his or her share shall go to [name / his or her children equally].

In witness whereof I have signed this Will at [place] on the date mentioned above.

[Signature of testator]

Signed by the testator in our presence, and each of us has signed in the presence of the testator:
1. [Signature, name, address of witness]
2. [Signature, name, address of witness]

This is a minimal outline. Wills involving minors, business assets, property abroad or conditions on gifts need more careful clauses.

Need the complete, editable set? The Lexfolio Will and Succession Kit gives you editable will and codicil formats with clause options for executors, guardians of minors and alternate beneficiaries, plus probate and succession certificate petitions and a checklist for executing a valid will.

Changing or cancelling a will

Under section 70, an ordinary will can be revoked by a later will or codicil, by a signed and attested writing declaring the intention to revoke, or by burning, tearing or destroying it with that intention. Marriage revokes a will under the general rule, but the proviso to section 57 says marriage does not revoke a will made by a Hindu, Buddhist, Sikh or Jain. Small changes can be made by a codicil, which must be signed and attested in the same way as a will. Do not make handwritten corrections on a signed will.

Mistakes that lead to disputes

Only one witness, or witnesses who signed later and not in the testator’s presence.
A beneficiary arranging the will, choosing the witnesses and keeping the testator away from the family. Since H. Venkatachala Iyengar v. B.N. Thimmajamma (Supreme Court, 1958), the person relying on a will has had to remove such suspicious circumstances.
Vague property descriptions such as “my land in the village”.
No residuary clause, so part of the estate passes by intestate succession anyway.
Relying on an electronic or emailed will. The Information Technology Act, 2000 does not apply to wills (section 1(4) read with the First Schedule), so sign a paper original.

If a family member dies without a will, see our guides on the succession certificate procedure and the legal heir certificate in Uttar Pradesh.

Frequently asked questions

Is a handwritten will valid in India?

Yes, if it is signed by you and attested by two witnesses as section 63 requires. Handwritten or typed makes no difference.

Does a will need to be on stamp paper or notarised?

No particular paper is prescribed, and notarisation is not a legal requirement. What matters is the testator’s signature and attestation by two witnesses.

Is registration of a will compulsory in Uttar Pradesh?

No. The Allahabad High Court in Pramila Tiwari (2024) held the 2004 requirement void, so an unregistered will is not invalid in UP. Registration is still advisable.

Can a family member be a witness?

The law does not bar it, but a witness who benefits (or whose spouse benefits) risks losing that gift under section 67 and invites challenge. Independent witnesses are safer.

How many times can I change my will?

As often as you like. Only the last valid will operates, so state clearly in each new will that earlier wills are revoked.

*This article is general information, not legal advice.*

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18 October 2026

जमानत प्रार्थना पत्र का प्रारूप: बीएनएसएस धारा 480

अंतिम अद्यतन: 18 अक्टूबर 2026 (Last updated: 18 October 2026)

संक्षिप्त उत्तर: 1 जुलाई 2024 से जमानत के प्रावधान भारतीय नागरिक सुरक्षा संहिता, 2023 (बीएनएसएस) के अध्याय 35 में हैं। अजमानतीय अपराध में गिरफ़्तार व्यक्ति पहले मजिस्ट्रेट के समक्ष धारा 480 के अंतर्गत जमानत प्रार्थना पत्र देता है; वहाँ से अस्वीकार होने पर या गंभीर अपराधों में सत्र न्यायालय या उच्च न्यायालय के समक्ष धारा 483 के अंतर्गत आवेदन किया जाता है। प्रार्थना पत्र में न्यायालय का नाम, मुकदमा अपराध संख्या, धाराएँ, थाना, गिरफ़्तारी की तिथि, जमानत के आधार, पूर्व आवेदनों का विवरण और प्रार्थना लिखी जाती है, तथा साथ में शपथपत्र लगाया जाता है। नीचे एक संक्षिप्त निःशुल्क प्रारूप दिया गया है।

जमानत से जुड़ी नई और पुरानी धाराएँ

विषय	दंड प्रक्रिया संहिता, 1973 (पुरानी)	बीएनएसएस, 2023 (नई)
जमानतीय अपराध में जमानत	धारा 436	धारा 478
विचाराधीन बंदी की अधिकतम निरुद्धि	धारा 436क	धारा 479
अजमानतीय अपराध में जमानत (मजिस्ट्रेट)	धारा 437	धारा 480
अपील न्यायालय के समक्ष उपस्थिति हेतु बंधपत्र	धारा 437क	धारा 481
अग्रिम जमानत	धारा 438	धारा 482
उच्च न्यायालय और सत्र न्यायालय की विशेष शक्तियाँ	धारा 439	धारा 483
बंधपत्र की राशि और उसमें कमी	धारा 440	धारा 484

बीएनएसएस ने पहली बार “जमानत” की परिभाषा भी दी है। धारा 2(1)(ख) के अनुसार जमानत का अर्थ है किसी अपराध के अभियुक्त या संदिग्ध व्यक्ति को अधिकारी या न्यायालय द्वारा लगाई गई शर्तों पर, बंधपत्र या जमानत बंधपत्र निष्पादित करने पर, विधि की अभिरक्षा से मुक्त करना। धारा 2(1)(घ) के अनुसार “जमानत बंधपत्र” प्रतिभू (ज़मानतदार) सहित मुक्ति का वचन है, जबकि धारा 2(1)(ङ) का “बंधपत्र” बिना प्रतिभू का व्यक्तिगत वचन है।

किस न्यायालय में आवेदन करें

जमानतीय अपराध: धारा 478 के अनुसार जमानत अधिकार के रूप में मिलती है, थाने पर भी। निर्धन व्यक्ति, जो प्रतिभू न दे सके, उसे बंधपत्र पर छोड़ा जाना चाहिए; एक सप्ताह में जमानत बंधपत्र न दे पाने पर उसे निर्धन माना जा सकता है।
अजमानतीय अपराध, पहला चरण: संबंधित मजिस्ट्रेट के समक्ष धारा 480 के अंतर्गत।
मृत्यु या आजीवन कारावास से दंडनीय अपराध, या मजिस्ट्रेट से अस्वीकृति: सत्र न्यायालय के समक्ष धारा 483 के अंतर्गत।
सत्र न्यायालय से अस्वीकृति: उच्च न्यायालय के समक्ष धारा 483 के अंतर्गत।
गिरफ़्तारी की आशंका हो: अग्रिम जमानत, धारा 482। विस्तार के लिए देखें हमारी मार्गदर्शिका Anticipatory bail under section 482 BNSS।

धारा 480: मजिस्ट्रेट से जमानत के मुख्य नियम

यदि यह विश्वास करने के उचित आधार हों कि अपराध मृत्यु या आजीवन कारावास से दंडनीय है, तो मजिस्ट्रेट सामान्यतः जमानत नहीं देता, परंतु बालक, महिला या रोगी अथवा अशक्त व्यक्ति को जमानत दी जा सकती है।
मृत्यु, आजीवन कारावास या सात वर्ष या अधिक के कारावास से दंडनीय अपराध में जमानत से पहले लोक अभियोजक को सुनवाई का अवसर देना होता है।
सात वर्ष या अधिक के कारावास वाले अपराधों में धारा 480(3) के अंतर्गत शर्तें लगाई जाती हैं: बंधपत्र के अनुसार उपस्थित होना, वैसा ही अपराध न करना, और गवाहों को धमकी या प्रलोभन न देना तथा साक्ष्य से छेड़छाड़ न करना।
जमानत देने के कारण लिखित में दर्ज किए जाते हैं (धारा 480(4))।
मजिस्ट्रेट द्वारा विचारणीय अजमानतीय मामले में यदि साक्ष्य के लिए नियत पहली तिथि से साठ दिन में विचारण पूरा न हो और अभियुक्त पूरी अवधि अभिरक्षा में रहा हो, तो उसे जमानत पर छोड़ा जाता है, जब तक मजिस्ट्रेट लिखित कारणों से अन्यथा निर्देश न दे (धारा 480(6))।

धारा 483: सत्र न्यायालय और उच्च न्यायालय

ये न्यायालय अभिरक्षा में बंद किसी भी अभियुक्त को जमानत दे सकते हैं और मजिस्ट्रेट द्वारा लगाई गई शर्त को हटा या बदल सकते हैं। केवल सत्र न्यायालय द्वारा विचारणीय या आजीवन कारावास से दंडनीय अपराध में जमानत से पहले लोक अभियोजक को नोटिस देना होता है, जब तक न्यायालय लिखित कारणों से इसे अव्यवहार्य न माने। भारतीय न्याय संहिता की धारा 65 या धारा 70(2) के अपराधों में आवेदन प्राप्त होने के पंद्रह दिन के भीतर लोक अभियोजक को नोटिस देना और सुनवाई के समय सूचनादाता या उसके द्वारा अधिकृत व्यक्ति की उपस्थिति आवश्यक है।

जमानत के दो वैधानिक रास्ते जिन्हें न भूलें

प्रावधान	नियम
धारा 187(3): आरोप पत्र में विलंब	मृत्यु, आजीवन कारावास या दस वर्ष या अधिक के कारावास वाले अपराध में 90 दिन, अन्य अपराधों में 60 दिन तक आरोप पत्र न आने पर, अभियुक्त जमानत देने को तैयार हो तो उसे जमानत पर छोड़ा जाता है
धारा 479: विचाराधीन बंदी	मृत्यु या आजीवन कारावास वाले अपराधों को छोड़कर, अधिकतम दंड की आधी अवधि तक निरुद्ध रहने पर जमानत; पहली बार के अपराधी को एक तिहाई अवधि के बाद बंधपत्र पर मुक्ति। एक से अधिक मामलों में लंबित अभियुक्त पर यह लाभ लागू नहीं

प्रावधान

नियम

धारा 187(3): आरोप पत्र में विलंब

मृत्यु, आजीवन कारावास या दस वर्ष या अधिक के कारावास वाले अपराध में 90 दिन, अन्य अपराधों में 60 दिन तक आरोप पत्र न आने पर, अभियुक्त जमानत देने को तैयार हो तो उसे जमानत पर छोड़ा जाता है

धारा 479: विचाराधीन बंदी

मृत्यु या आजीवन कारावास वाले अपराधों को छोड़कर, अधिकतम दंड की आधी अवधि तक निरुद्ध रहने पर जमानत; पहली बार के अपराधी को एक तिहाई अवधि के बाद बंधपत्र पर मुक्ति। एक से अधिक मामलों में लंबित अभियुक्त पर यह लाभ लागू नहीं

सर्वोच्च न्यायालय ने सतेंद्र कुमार अंतिल बनाम सीबीआई, (2022) 10 SCC 51 में अपराधों की श्रेणियाँ बनाकर जमानत संबंधी विस्तृत दिशानिर्देश दिए थे, जिनका उल्लेख जमानत प्रार्थना पत्रों में प्रायः किया जाता है।

आवश्यक दस्तावेज़

प्राथमिकी (एफ़आईआर) की प्रति और रिमांड आदेश की प्रति
अभियुक्त की ओर से शपथपत्र (जेल में हो तो प्रायः किसी निकट संबंधी द्वारा पैरवी हेतु शपथपत्र)
पूर्व जमानत आवेदनों और उन पर पारित आदेशों की प्रतियाँ
चिकित्सा प्रपत्र, आयु प्रमाण या अन्य विशेष आधारों के दस्तावेज़
जमानत मिलने पर: प्रतिभुओं के पहचान पत्र, पते के प्रमाण और संपत्ति या आय के प्रमाण, जैसा न्यायालय माँगे

जमानत प्रार्थना पत्र का निःशुल्क प्रारूप (धारा 480)

न्यायालय श्रीमान मुख्य न्यायिक मजिस्ट्रेट / न्यायिक मजिस्ट्रेट, [जनपद]

राज्य बनाम [अभियुक्त का नाम]
मुकदमा अपराध संख्या [ ] वर्ष [ ]
धारा [ ] भारतीय न्याय संहिता, 2023
थाना [ ], जनपद [ ]

प्रार्थना पत्र अंतर्गत धारा 480 भारतीय नागरिक सुरक्षा संहिता, 2023 बाबत जमानत

महोदय,
प्रार्थी/अभियुक्त [नाम], पुत्र [पिता का नाम], निवासी [पता], निम्नलिखित निवेदन करता है:

1. प्रार्थी को उपरोक्त मुकदमे में दिनांक [ ] को गिरफ़्तार किया गया और वह तब से जिला कारागार [ ] में निरुद्ध है।

2. प्रार्थी निर्दोष है और उसे [संक्षिप्त कारण, जैसे आपसी रंजिश या संपत्ति विवाद] के कारण झूठा फँसाया गया है। प्राथमिकी में प्रार्थी की भूमिका सामान्य और अस्पष्ट है।

3. प्रार्थी का कोई आपराधिक इतिहास नहीं है। वह जनपद का स्थायी निवासी है और उसके भागने या साक्ष्य से छेड़छाड़ करने की कोई संभावना नहीं है।

4. मामले की विवेचना [पूर्ण हो चुकी है / जारी है] और प्रार्थी से कोई बरामदगी शेष नहीं है।

5. इस मुकदमे में प्रार्थी की ओर से कोई अन्य जमानत प्रार्थना पत्र किसी न्यायालय में लंबित या निर्णीत नहीं है। [यदि हो तो विवरण दें।]

6. प्रार्थी न्यायालय द्वारा लगाई गई प्रत्येक शर्त का पालन करने और प्रत्येक तिथि पर उपस्थित रहने का वचन देता है।

प्रार्थना: अतः श्रीमान जी से निवेदन है कि प्रार्थी को उपरोक्त मुकदमे में जमानत पर रिहा करने का आदेश पारित करने की कृपा करें।

स्थान: [ ] दिनांक: [ ]
प्रार्थी: [नाम]
द्वारा पैरोकार: [नाम और संबंध]

सत्र न्यायालय में धारा 483 के अंतर्गत आवेदन करते समय मजिस्ट्रेट द्वारा अस्वीकृति का आदेश संलग्न करें और उसका उल्लेख करें। जिलों में शीर्षक और प्रारूप की स्थानीय परिपाटी अलग हो सकती है।

पूरा, संपादन योग्य सेट चाहिए? Lexfolio के Bail Application Formats (BNSS) में बीएनएसएस की नई धाराओं के अनुसार नियमित जमानत, अग्रिम जमानत और शपथपत्र के हिंदी और अंग्रेज़ी में संपादन योग्य प्रारूप दिए गए हैं।

प्रार्थना पत्र लिखते समय सामान्य गलतियाँ

पुरानी दंड प्रक्रिया संहिता की धारा 437 या 439 लिख देना, जबकि 1 जुलाई 2024 के बाद के मामलों में बीएनएसएस की धारा लागू होती है।
भारतीय दंड संहिता की धाराएँ लिखना, जबकि नए मामलों में भारतीय न्याय संहिता लागू है। धाराएँ मिलाने के लिए देखें IPC to BNS section converter।
पूर्व जमानत आवेदनों की जानकारी छिपाना।
केवल “प्रार्थी निर्दोष है” लिखना, ठोस आधार न देना।
धारा 187(3) या धारा 479 का लाभ उपलब्ध होने पर भी उसका उल्लेख न करना।

शपथपत्र के प्रारूप और सत्यापन के लिए हमारी मार्गदर्शिका शपथ पत्र का प्रारूप और नोटरी प्रक्रिया उपयोगी है।

अक्सर पूछे जाने वाले प्रश्न

जमानत की धारा अब कौन सी है?

मजिस्ट्रेट से अजमानतीय अपराध में जमानत के लिए धारा 480, सत्र न्यायालय और उच्च न्यायालय के लिए धारा 483, और अग्रिम जमानत के लिए धारा 482 बीएनएसएस।

क्या जमानत प्रार्थना पत्र हिंदी में दिया जा सकता है?

उत्तर प्रदेश सहित हिंदी भाषी राज्यों के अधीनस्थ न्यायालयों में हिंदी में प्रार्थना पत्र सामान्य रूप से स्वीकार किए जाते हैं।

महिला अभियुक्त को जमानत में कोई छूट है?

धारा 480 के परंतुक के अनुसार मृत्यु या आजीवन कारावास से दंडनीय अपराध में भी मजिस्ट्रेट महिला, बालक या रोगी अथवा अशक्त व्यक्ति को जमानत दे सकता है।

आरोप पत्र समय पर न आए तो क्या करें?

धारा 187(3) में बताई गई 60 या 90 दिन की अवधि बीतते ही जमानत का प्रार्थना पत्र दें और जमानत देने की तत्परता दिखाएँ।

जमानत अस्वीकार हो जाए तो?

मजिस्ट्रेट से अस्वीकृति पर सत्र न्यायालय में और सत्र न्यायालय से अस्वीकृति पर उच्च न्यायालय में धारा 483 के अंतर्गत आवेदन किया जा सकता है।

*यह लेख सामान्य जानकारी है, विधिक परामर्श नहीं (general information, not legal advice).*

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18 October 2026

Anticipatory Bail Under Section 482 BNSS: Full Guide

Last updated: 18 October 2026

Look up any section: type an old or new section number into the free IPC to BNS converter to see its counterpart instantly.

Short answer: Anticipatory bail is now governed by section 482 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS), which replaced section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 from 1 July 2024. A person who has reason to believe he may be arrested for a non-bailable offence can apply to the Court of Session or the High Court for a direction that, if arrested, he shall be released on bail. The court may impose conditions, such as joining the investigation when required, not influencing witnesses and not leaving India without permission. It is not available for offences under section 65 and section 70(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (rape of a girl below 16 and gang rape of a girl below 18).

Section 438 CrPC to section 482 BNSS: what changed

Point	Section 438 CrPC (old)	Section 482 BNSS (new)
Basic power	High Court or Court of Session may direct release on bail in the event of arrest	Same
Statutory factors (gravity of accusation, antecedents, risk of fleeing, intent to humiliate)	Listed in section 438(1)	Not listed; courts continue to weigh such factors under case law
Interim order and notice to Public Prosecutor	Detailed in section 438(1), (1A) and (1B)	Not reproduced
Conditions	Section 438(2)	Section 482(2): same four heads
Effect on later arrest	Section 438(3)	Section 482(3): same
Excluded offences	IPC sections 376(3), 376AB, 376DA, 376DB	BNS section 65 and section 70(2)

For other old to new mappings, such as IPC 420 to BNS 318, see our IPC to BNS section converter. Related bail provisions have also moved: regular bail by a Magistrate (old section 437) is now section 480, and the special powers of the High Court and Sessions Court (old section 439) are now section 483.

When can you apply?

There must be a real apprehension of arrest. Vague fear is not enough. A threat by the complainant, a complaint already lodged, an FIR, a summons or warrant, or a police notice can all support the apprehension.
The offence must be non-bailable. For bailable offences, bail is a right under section 478 and anticipatory bail is unnecessary.
An FIR is not essential. In Sushila Aggarwal v. State (NCT of Delhi), decided by a Constitution Bench on 29 January 2020, the Supreme Court held that an application can be made even before an FIR is registered, as long as the facts are clear and there is a reasonable basis for the apprehension.
You must not already be in custody for that offence. Once arrested, the remedy is regular bail.

Which court: Sessions Court or High Court?

Section 482 gives both courts the power. In practice applicants usually go to the Court of Session first and approach the High Court if relief is refused. Whether the High Court should entertain applications directly, without the Sessions Court being approached first, is now before a three judge bench of the Supreme Court in Mohammed Rasal C. v. State of Kerala, which reserved judgment in October 2026. Until that ruling, follow the settled practice of your State.

Position in Uttar Pradesh

Uttar Pradesh had its own amendment to section 438 CrPC (U.P. Act No. 4 of 2019), which barred anticipatory bail in certain categories, including offences punishable with death or life imprisonment and NDPS cases. In 2025, single judges of the Allahabad High Court held that this bar did not survive the repeal of the CrPC, because section 482 BNSS contains no such prohibition. Sudhir @ Sudhir Kumar Chaurasia v. State of U.P., 2025:AHC-LKO:34988 (Lucknow Bench) entertained an application in an NDPS case, and a July 2025 ruling in Abdul Hameed’s case granted relief in an offence punishable with life imprisonment. Special statutes that restrict bail still apply on their own terms.

Conditions the court can impose

Section 482(2) lists the conditions a court may attach:

the applicant shall make himself available for interrogation by a police officer as and when required;
he shall not, directly or indirectly, make any inducement, threat or promise to any person acquainted with the facts of the case, to dissuade that person from disclosing the facts to the court or the police;
he shall not leave India without the previous permission of the court;
any other condition that could be imposed under section 480(3), as if bail were granted under that section.

Under section 482(3), if the applicant is later arrested without warrant on that accusation by an officer in charge of a police station, he must be released on bail if he is prepared to give bail. If a Magistrate taking cognizance decides a warrant should issue, it must be a bailable warrant in line with the direction.

How long does the protection last?

Sushila Aggarwal also held that anticipatory bail need not be limited to a fixed period. It can continue until the end of the trial, unless the court, for reasons specific to the case, limits it. Courts can still impose conditions, and the protection can be cancelled if the conditions are broken. Earlier, in Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia v. State of Punjab, (1980) 2 SCC 565, a Constitution Bench had cautioned against reading into the provision restrictions that the legislature did not impose.

Where anticipatory bail is barred or restricted

BNS section 65 and section 70(2): excluded by section 482(4).
SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989: sections 18 and 18A exclude anticipatory bail. In Prathvi Raj Chauhan v. Union of India (10 February 2020) the Supreme Court upheld section 18A but recognised that a court may still grant relief where the complaint does not make out a prima facie case under the Act.
Proclaimed offenders and absconders: courts are generally unwilling to protect a person who has evaded the process of law.

Step by step procedure

Collect the facts: FIR copy (available online in most States), complaint copy, police notices, and documents that support your version.
Draft the application under section 482 BNSS, supported by an affidavit. State the case number, sections, police station, your role as alleged, why the accusation is false or exaggerated, your antecedents, roots in society and willingness to cooperate.
Disclose earlier applications. Courts require you to state whether any bail or anticipatory bail application was filed earlier and what happened to it. Concealment can lead to dismissal.
File in the Sessions Court of the district where the case is registered. The court calls for the case diary or a report from the police and hears the Public Prosecutor.
Seek interim protection at the first hearing if arrest is imminent. Though section 482 does not spell out interim orders, courts routinely grant interim protection till the next date.
On grant, comply with the order. Furnish bail bonds and sureties as directed, usually before the trial court or the investigating officer, and join investigation on the dates fixed.

Documents checklist

Document	Purpose
Application under section 482 BNSS	The main pleading
Supporting affidavit of the applicant	Verifies the facts stated
Copy of FIR or complaint, if available	Shows the accusation and sections
Police notices, summons or warrant	Shows the apprehension of arrest
Documents in support of defence (agreements, messages, payment records, medical papers)	Shows the case is false, civil in nature or exaggerated
Copy of any earlier order on bail	Disclosure and, before the High Court, the Sessions Court’s refusal
Identity proof and vakalatnama (if represented)	Identification and authority to appear

Free sample: prayer clause for anticipatory bail

IN THE COURT OF THE SESSIONS JUDGE, [DISTRICT]
Criminal Misc. Anticipatory Bail Application No. ____ of [year]
[Name of applicant] … Applicant
versus
State of [State] … Opposite Party
Case Crime No. [ ], under sections [ ] BNS, Police Station [ ], District [ ]

APPLICATION UNDER SECTION 482 OF THE BHARATIYA NAGARIK SURAKSHA SANHITA, 2023

1. The applicant has been falsely named in the above case, registered on [date] on the complaint of [name], arising out of [brief nature of dispute].

2. The applicant has reason to believe that he may be arrested in the said case, which involves a non-bailable offence.

3. The applicant has no criminal antecedents, is a permanent resident of [place], and undertakes to cooperate with the investigation and abide by any condition imposed by this Court. No other application for anticipatory bail in this case has been filed before any court.

PRAYER: It is therefore prayed that this Court may be pleased to direct that, in the event of arrest of the applicant in Case Crime No. [ ], Police Station [ ], he be released on bail on such terms and conditions as this Court deems fit; and, pending disposal of this application, to direct that no coercive action be taken against the applicant.

Place: [ ] Date: [ ]
[Signature of applicant]

Draft it right the first time. The Lexfolio Bail Application Formats (BNSS) pack gives you editable anticipatory bail, regular bail and supporting affidavit formats updated for the BNSS section numbers, in English and Hindi.

Need a regular bail application in Hindi instead? See our guide to the जमानत प्रार्थना पत्र का प्रारूप.

Frequently asked questions

Is section 438 CrPC still used?

Applications filed on or after 1 July 2024 are made under section 482 BNSS. Section 438 is relevant only to proceedings saved under the repeal provision in section 531 BNSS.

Can anticipatory bail be granted after a charge sheet is filed?

Yes. Nothing in section 482 limits it to the investigation stage, and Sushila Aggarwal confirms the protection can extend through the trial.

Do I have to surrender after getting anticipatory bail?

No surrender to custody is needed. You furnish bonds as the order directs and comply with its conditions.

Can the police still question me?

Yes. Joining interrogation when required is one of the statutory conditions in section 482(2).

What if the Sessions Court rejects my application?

You can apply to the High Court under the same section, attaching the Sessions Court order. A fresh application to the same court generally needs a change in circumstances.

*This article is general information, not legal advice.*

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All sections in one place: see the IPC to BNS conversion table, the CrPC to BNSS table and the Evidence Act to BSA table.

18 October 2026

Author: Lexfolio Team

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