AIBE XXII 20 Practice Questions With Answers

These 20 questions are original and mixed across subjects, in the style of the open-book AIBE XXII (29 November 2026, as reported). Attempt them in 25 minutes without notes first, then check each answer against the bare act. The answer section names the provision so you can open it and read the exact words.

Questions

Q1. Article 21A provides free and compulsory education to children of which age group? (a) 3 to 14 years (b) 6 to 14 years (c) 6 to 18 years (d) 5 to 15 years

Q2. Under Article 22(2) of the Constitution, a person arrested must be produced before the nearest magistrate within: (a) 12 hours (b) 24 hours excluding journey time (c) 48 hours (d) 24 hours including journey time

Q3. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita provision that corresponds to Section 154 of the CrPC (information in cognizable cases) is: (a) Section 144 (b) Section 187 (c) Section 173 (d) Section 482

Q4. The punishment for murder is provided in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita under: (a) Section 100 (b) Section 101 (c) Section 103(1) (d) Section 303

Q5. Theft under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita can be committed only in respect of: (a) immovable property (b) movable property (c) any property (d) land and buildings

Q6. Under the Indian Contract Act, an agreement with a minor is: (a) voidable at the option of the minor (b) valid but unenforceable (c) void ab initio (d) valid if for the minor’s benefit

Q7. Under Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, where a sum is named in the contract as payable on breach, the party complaining of breach is entitled to receive: (a) the entire named sum in every case (b) reasonable compensation not exceeding the amount named (c) nothing unless actual loss is proved in full (d) double the named sum

Q8. The rule of absolute liability for harm caused by hazardous industries was laid down in: (a) Rylands v Fletcher (b) Donoghue v Stevenson (c) M.C. Mehta v Union of India (d) Bhim Singh v State of J&K

Q9. Under Section 13B(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act, the second motion for divorce by mutual consent is made: (a) at once (b) not earlier than six months and not later than eighteen months after the petition (c) after one year (d) after two years

Q10. In Vineeta Sharma v Rakesh Sharma (2020), the Supreme Court held that the daughter’s coparcenary right under Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act: (a) depends on the father being alive on 9 September 2005 (b) is by birth and does not depend on the father being alive on that date (c) exists only for unmarried daughters (d) exists only by will

Q11. Under the Special Marriage Act, 1954, a marriage can be solemnised after notice of intended marriage has been given and: (a) seven days have passed (b) fifteen days have passed (c) thirty days have passed without a valid objection (d) six months have passed

Q12. An appeal against an order of the disciplinary committee of a State Bar Council under the Advocates Act lies, in the first instance, to: (a) the High Court (b) the Bar Council of India (c) the Supreme Court (d) the Central Government

Q13. Under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, the drawer of a dishonoured cheque must make payment within how many days of receiving the demand notice? (a) 7 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 30

Q14. An application to set aside an arbitral award under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act must be made within: (a) 30 days (b) three months, extendable by a further 30 days on sufficient cause (c) six months (d) one year

Q15. Stay of a suit where the matter is directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties is provided in: (a) Section 9 CPC (b) Section 10 CPC (c) Section 11 CPC (d) Section 12 CPC

Q16. The period of limitation for a suit for which no period is provided elsewhere in the Schedule to the Limitation Act (Article 113) is: (a) one year (b) two years (c) three years (d) twelve years

Q17. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, a confession made by an accused to a police officer: (a) is always admissible (b) cannot be proved against him, subject to the discovery provision in Section 23 (c) is admissible only if signed (d) is admissible only before a Sessions Court

Q18. The fundamental duty to protect and improve the natural environment is found in: (a) Article 48A (b) Article 51A(g) (c) Article 21 (d) Article 39(b)

Q19. Under Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act, a sale of tangible immovable property of the value of Rs 100 and upwards can be made only by: (a) delivery of possession (b) oral agreement (c) a registered instrument (d) a stamped affidavit

Q20. Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, identity theft is dealt with in: (a) Section 66A (b) Section 66C (c) Section 66F (d) Section 67

Answers and the provision to open

1. (b) Article 21A: children aged 6 to 14.
2. (b) Article 22(2): 24 hours, excluding the journey time from the place of arrest to the magistrate.
3. (c) BNSS Section 173 corresponds to CrPC Section 154. BNSS 187 is the remand provision (CrPC 167) and BNSS 482 is anticipatory bail (CrPC 438).
4. (c) BNS Section 103(1) prescribes death or imprisonment for life and fine. Section 101 defines murder and Section 100 culpable homicide.
5. (b) BNS Section 303: theft concerns movable property taken dishonestly out of possession.
6. (c) Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose (1903): a minor’s agreement is void ab initio.
7. (b) Section 74, Indian Contract Act; see Fateh Chand v Balkishan Dass on the reasonable compensation principle.
8. (c) M.C. Mehta v Union of India (1987), the Oleum Gas Leak case.
9. (b) Section 13B(2), Hindu Marriage Act. In Amardeep Singh v Harveen Kaur (2017), the Supreme Court held the six-month period is directory and can be waived in suitable cases.
10. (b) Vineeta Sharma v Rakesh Sharma (2020): the daughter is a coparcener by birth, with no need for the father to have been alive on 9 September 2005.
11. (c) Special Marriage Act: notice is published, and the marriage may be solemnised after thirty days if no valid objection is made (read Sections 5 to 7 in the act).
12. (b) Section 37 of the Advocates Act, 1961 gives the appeal to the Bar Council of India. Section 38 provides a further appeal to the Supreme Court.
13. (c) Section 138 proviso: the payee must give notice within 30 days of information of dishonour, and the drawer then has 15 days from receipt of notice.
14. (b) Section 34(3), Arbitration and Conciliation Act: three months from receipt of the award, extendable by 30 days if sufficient cause is shown, and not beyond that.
15. (b) Section 10 CPC (res sub judice). Section 11 is res judicata.
16. (c) Article 113 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963: three years from when the right to sue accrues.
17. (b) Under the BSA, confessions to police officers are not provable against the accused, with the discovery exception in Section 23 (corresponding to Section 27 of the old Evidence Act). Read the whole section.
18. (b) Article 51A(g). Article 48A is a Directive Principle on the State’s duty.
19. (c) Section 54, TPA: registered instrument for tangible immovable property of Rs 100 and upwards.
20. (b) Section 66C (identity theft). Section 66D deals with cheating by personation using a computer resource.

How to use the set

Mark each wrong answer in your log with the provision and the reason. If you missed three or more in one subject, give that subject an extra revision block. For a larger set across all 19 subjects, Lexfolio’s AIBE XXII complete pack includes a practice pack of 300 explained MCQs and five full mocks. Check the final revised bare act text and any amendments before the exam, as provisions and numbering follow the Gazette text, not any practice list. Plan the rest of your week with the last 7 days plan.