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Judiciary Prelims CPC MCQ: 12 Questions on CPC, Contract, BSA

Judiciary prelims CPC MCQ questions cluster around Sections 9, 10, 11, 80, 96, 100 and 115 and Orders VII, VIII, IX and XXXVII, and they sit beside contract questions from the Indian Contract Act, 1872 and evidence questions that now follow the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), in force since 1 July 2024. This page gives a quick table and 12 original MCQs with answers on CPC, contract and evidence, each with a one-line reason.

PointPosition
Notice before suing the GovernmentSection 80(1) CPC: two months; Section 80(2) allows urgent relief with leave of court
Written statementOrder VIII Rule 1: 30 days from service of summons, extendable for recorded reasons to not later than 90 days
Setting aside an ex parte decreeOrder IX Rule 13; 30 days under Article 123 of the Limitation Act, 1963
Summary suitOrder XXXVII: defendant applies for leave to defend within 10 days of service of summons for judgment
Second appealSection 100: only on a substantial question of law
Specific performanceSpecific Relief Act, 1963, Section 10 (as amended in 2018); suit within 3 years under Article 54 of the Limitation Act
Evidence lawBSA replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872; learn both numbers

Judiciary prelims CPC MCQ: Q1 to Q6

Q1. Ramesh files a second suit in a Lucknow court on a matter directly and substantially in issue in an earlier pending suit between the same parties in a competent court. The later court must:

  1. Dismiss it under Section 11
  2. Stay it under Section 10
  3. Transfer it automatically to the earlier court
  4. Proceed, because the suits differ in number
Show answer

Answer: B. Section 10 (res sub judice) stays the later suit. Section 11 (res judicata) applies only after the earlier matter is finally decided.

Q2. A suit for damages against a State Government cannot ordinarily be instituted until after notice under Section 80 CPC has been served and a period of:

  1. 15 days
  2. One month
  3. Two months
  4. Six months
Show answer

Answer: C. Two months. For urgent or immediate relief the court can permit a suit without notice under Section 80(2).

Q3. Which of these is NOT a ground for rejecting a plaint under Order VII Rule 11?

  1. It does not disclose a cause of action
  2. The suit appears from the plaint to be barred by law
  3. The defendant has a strong defence on the merits
  4. The relief is undervalued and the plaintiff does not correct it when directed
Show answer

Answer: C. Rejection is decided on the plaint’s own averments, not on the defence.

Q4. An application under Order IX Rule 13 to set aside an ex parte decree must be filed within:

  1. 15 days
  2. 30 days
  3. 60 days
  4. 90 days
Show answer

Answer: B. Article 123 of the Limitation Act, 1963: 30 days from the decree, or from knowledge of it where summons was not duly served.

Q5. A second appeal to the High Court under Section 100 CPC lies only if the case involves:

  1. A question of fact of public importance
  2. A substantial question of law
  3. A claim above a prescribed value
  4. A direction from the District Judge
Show answer

Answer: B. The High Court must be satisfied that the case involves a substantial question of law and must formulate it.

Q6. In a summary suit on a promissory note under Order XXXVII, the defendant may apply for leave to defend within what time of service of the summons for judgment?

  1. 7 days
  2. 10 days
  3. 30 days
  4. 60 days
Show answer

Answer: B. Ten days, under Order XXXVII Rule 3(5). Without leave, the plaintiff gets a decree.

Practise this in exam conditions. The Judiciary and AIBE Pack gives you 300 AIBE MCQs with explanations, 30 judiciary mains model answers, the Supreme Court judgments digest and the new criminal laws guide in one set. Judiciary and AIBE Pack, ₹499. For the Evidence Act to BSA numbers, the New Criminal Laws Guide, ₹149 carries verified correspondence tables for 95 Evidence Act provisions.

Contract MCQ for civil judge exam: Q7 to Q9

Q7. In Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903), the Privy Council held that a minor’s agreement is:

  1. Voidable at the minor’s option
  2. Valid but unenforceable
  3. Void from the beginning
  4. Valid if ratified on attaining majority
Show answer

Answer: C. Void ab initio, so it cannot be ratified later.

Q8. Under Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, compensation for breach is NOT payable for:

  1. Loss arising naturally in the usual course
  2. Loss the parties knew would likely result from the breach
  3. Remote and indirect loss
  4. Direct loss from the breach
Show answer

Answer: C. This is the rule in Hadley v. Baxendale (1854), now statutory.

Q9. After the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, specific performance of a contract is:

  1. A purely discretionary remedy
  2. To be enforced by the court, subject to Sections 11(2), 14 and 16
  3. Never available for immovable property
  4. Available only if damages are inadequate
Show answer

Answer: B. Section 10 now makes specific performance the rule, with the listed exceptions.

Evidence MCQ under BSA: Q10 to Q12

TopicEvidence ActBSA
General burden of proof101104
Fact especially within knowledge106109
Competency of witnesses118124
Electronic record certificate65B63

Q10. In Arjun Panditrao Khotkar (2020), the Supreme Court held that a certificate under old Section 65B(4) (now Section 63 BSA) is:

  1. Never required
  2. Required for secondary electronic evidence, but not where the original device is produced and proved by its owner
  3. Required only in criminal trials
  4. Required only for CCTV footage
Show answer

Answer: B. The certificate is a condition precedent for admitting electronic records as secondary evidence.

Q11. The general rule that whoever desires judgment on a legal right dependent on facts must prove them (old Section 101) is now:

  1. Section 103 BSA
  2. Section 104 BSA
  3. Section 108 BSA
  4. Section 109 BSA
Show answer

Answer: B. Section 104 BSA. Section 109 BSA is old Section 106, the special knowledge rule.

Q12. Old Section 118 of the Evidence Act, making all persons competent to testify unless they cannot understand questions or give rational answers, is now:

  1. Section 120 BSA
  2. Section 124 BSA
  3. Section 125 BSA
  4. Section 139 BSA
Show answer

Answer: B. Section 124 BSA. Section 125 covers a witness who cannot speak (old 119).

How to use these MCQs in judiciary prelims preparation

  1. Memorise time limits as a set. 30 days, 60 days, 90 days and two months are the usual distractors in CPC and limitation questions.
  2. Read the Order and Rule, not just the Section. Order IX Rule 13 and Order XXXVII Rule 3 are asked by rule number.
  3. Learn evidence in pairs. Write the old and new number side by side; examiners offer both.
  4. Practise under the clock. Many State prelims give about a minute a question.

Frequently asked questions

Which CPC sections are most asked in judiciary prelims?

Sections 9 to 11, 20, 80, 96 to 100, 115 and 151, and Orders VI, VII, VIII, IX, XXXVII and XXXIX are the staples. Judiciary prelims CPC MCQ papers also test execution and limitation.

Is the Evidence Act or the BSA tested in judiciary prelims now?

The BSA has replaced the Evidence Act for proceedings after 1 July 2024, so new papers use BSA numbers. Questions often keep the old number as an option, so know both.

How should I practise judiciary prelims CPC MCQ questions?

Attempt 25 to 30 questions a day by topic, note every wrong answer as a one-line rule, and then move to full mocks. Revise the rule sheet before each mock.

Are contract and specific relief important for the civil judge exam?

Yes. Civil judges try contract disputes daily, so State papers carry questions on formation, consideration, breach, damages and specific relief.

Quick quiz

Q1. The longest period to which the court can extend the time for filing a written statement under Order VIII Rule 1, from the date of service of summons, is:

  1. 60 days
  2. 90 days
  3. 120 days
  4. 180 days
Show answer

Answer: B. 30 days to file, and not later than 90 days with recorded reasons and costs.

Q2. A suit for specific performance of a contract with a date fixed for performance must be filed within:

  1. One year
  2. Three years
  3. Six years
  4. Twelve years
Show answer

Answer: B. Article 54 of the Limitation Act: three years from the date fixed, or from when the plaintiff has notice of refusal.

Q3. Under Section 34 CPC, for a non-commercial liability, further interest from decree to payment is by default awarded at a rate not exceeding:

  1. 6% a year
  2. 9% a year
  3. 12% a year
  4. 18% a year
Show answer

Answer: A. The proviso lets commercial transactions go higher, up to the contractual or nationalised bank lending rate.

Sources

  • Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, ss.9, 10, 11, 34, 80, 96, 100, 115; Order VII Rule 11, Order VIII Rule 1, Order IX Rule 13, Order XXXVII Rule 3
  • Indian Contract Act, 1872, s.73; Specific Relief Act, 1963, s.10 (as amended by Act 18 of 2018)
  • Limitation Act, 1963, Articles 54 and 123
  • Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, ss.63, 104, 109, 124, 125
  • Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903); Hadley v. Baxendale (1854); Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal (2020)

This page is for education and general information, not legal advice for a specific case. Law as on 29 October 2026.

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