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UGC NET Law Practice Questions: 15 MCQs with Answers

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UGC NET law practice questions should copy the formats seen in Paper 2 (Law, code 58): direct MCQs, assertion and reason, match the lists, and statement-based or chronological-order questions. This page has 15 original UGC NET law MCQ with answers, at least one from each of the ten units. Paper 2 has 100 questions for 200 marks with no negative marking, and the December 2026 exam runs on 14 to 18 and 21 December 2026.

FormatHow to attempt it
Direct MCQEliminate two options first, then recall the rule or case
Assertion and reasonJudge A and R separately as true or false, then test whether R explains A
Match the listsFix the pairs you are sure of; the options usually leave one answer
Chronological orderPlace the earliest and latest first; the middle sorts itself
Statement-basedTest each statement alone; one false statement removes several options

UGC NET law MCQ with answers: Units I to V

Q1 (Unit I). Match the jurist (List I) with the idea (List II): (a) Hohfeld, (b) Roscoe Pound, (c) Savigny, (d) Bentham. (i) Social engineering, (ii) Volksgeist, (iii) Jural correlatives, (iv) Utility.

  1. (a) iii, (b) i, (c) ii, (d) iv
  2. (a) i, (b) iii, (c) iv, (d) ii
  3. (a) ii, (b) iv, (c) iii, (d) i
  4. (a) iv, (b) ii, (c) i, (d) iii
Show answer

Answer: A. Hohfeld, jural relations; Pound, social engineering; Savigny, spirit of the people; Bentham, utility.

Q2 (Unit I). Assertion (A): In H.L.A. Hart’s theory, a legal system is a union of primary and secondary rules. Reason (R): Rules of recognition, change and adjudication are secondary rules.

  1. Both true; R explains A
  2. Both true; R does not explain A
  3. A true, R false
  4. A false, R true
Show answer

Answer: A. The secondary rules cure the defects of primary rules alone.

Q3 (Unit II). Arrange in chronological order: (1) K.S. Puttaswamy, (2) Kesavananda Bharati, (3) S.R. Bommai, (4) Maneka Gandhi.

  1. 2, 4, 3, 1
  2. 4, 2, 3, 1
  3. 2, 3, 4, 1
  4. 4, 2, 1, 3
Show answer

Answer: A. Kesavananda (1973), Maneka Gandhi (1978), Bommai (1994), Puttaswamy (2017).

Q4 (Unit II). Statements: (I) The rule against bias is part of natural justice. (II) Audi alteram partem means no one may be a judge in his own cause. (III) A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1969) blurred the line between quasi-judicial and administrative functions for natural justice. Which are correct?

  1. I and II only
  2. I and III only
  3. II and III only
  4. I, II and III
Show answer

Answer: B. Audi alteram partem means hear the other side. The bias rule is nemo judex in causa sua.

Q5 (Unit III). Under Article 38(1) of the ICJ Statute, which is a subsidiary means for determining rules of law?

  1. International conventions
  2. International custom
  3. General principles recognised by civilised nations
  4. Judicial decisions and the teachings of highly qualified publicists
Show answer

Answer: D. Article 38(1)(d). Conventions, custom and general principles are in (a) to (c).

Q6 (Unit III). The Additional Protocols I and II to the Geneva Conventions of 1949 were adopted in:

  1. 1949
  2. 1977
  3. 1987
  4. 1998
Show answer

Answer: B. 1977.

Q7 (Unit IV). Match the BNS section (List I) with the offence (List II): (a) s.63, (b) s.100, (c) s.101, (d) s.111. (i) Murder, (ii) Rape, (iii) Culpable homicide, (iv) Organised crime.

  1. (a) ii, (b) iii, (c) i, (d) iv
  2. (a) i, (b) ii, (c) iii, (d) iv
  3. (a) ii, (b) i, (c) iii, (d) iv
  4. (a) iii, (b) ii, (c) iv, (d) i
Show answer

Answer: A. Old IPC equivalents: 375, 299, 300 and none for organised crime.

Q8 (Unit IV). Assertion (A): A child below seven years cannot commit an offence. Reason (R): Section 20 BNS (old Section 82 IPC) grants such a child complete immunity.

  1. Both true; R explains A
  2. Both true; R does not explain A
  3. A true, R false
  4. A false, R true
Show answer

Answer: A. The immunity is absolute; from seven to twelve it depends on maturity.

Q9 (Unit V). Statements: (I) Act of God is a defence in Rylands v. Fletcher. (II) The absolute liability rule of M.C. Mehta (1987) admits no such exception. (III) Rylands v. Fletcher reached the House of Lords in 1868. Which are correct?

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III
Show answer

Answer: D. All three are correct.

Q10 (Unit V). Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 and the 2021 Rules, the District Commission hears complaints where the consideration paid does not exceed:

  1. ₹10 lakh
  2. ₹50 lakh
  3. ₹1 crore
  4. ₹2 crore
Show answer

Answer: B. ₹50 lakh. The State Commission hears above that up to ₹2 crore.

Practise this in exam conditions. The UGC NET Law Mock Tests give you four full-length Paper 2 mocks for the December 2026 cycle, each with 100 new questions over all ten units in these formats, with explained answers. UGC NET Law Mock Tests, ₹149. For teaching plus testing, see the UGC NET Law (Paper 2) Complete Course, ₹1,499.

UGC NET law practice questions: Units VI to X

Q11 (Unit VI). Under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the drawer of a dishonoured cheque must pay within how many days of receiving the demand notice, failing which the offence is complete?

  1. 7 days
  2. 15 days
  3. 30 days
  4. 45 days
Show answer

Answer: B. 15 days. The notice itself must be sent within 30 days of information of dishonour.

Q12 (Unit VII). Match the case (List I) with the holding (List II): (a) Shayara Bano, (b) Vineeta Sharma, (c) Danial Latifi, (d) Sarla Mudgal. (i) Daughters are coparceners by birth, (ii) Instant triple talaq set aside, (iii) 1986 Act upheld with wide reading of maintenance, (iv) Conversion to Islam does not dissolve the first Hindu marriage.

  1. (a) i, (b) ii, (c) iii, (d) iv
  2. (a) ii, (b) i, (c) iii, (d) iv
  3. (a) ii, (b) iii, (c) i, (d) iv
  4. (a) iv, (b) i, (c) ii, (d) iii
Show answer

Answer: B. Shayara Bano (2017), Vineeta Sharma (2020), Danial Latifi (2001), Sarla Mudgal (1995).

Q13 (Unit VIII). Arrange in chronological order: (1) Paris Agreement, (2) Stockholm Conference, (3) Kyoto Protocol, (4) Rio Earth Summit.

  1. 2, 4, 3, 1
  2. 2, 3, 4, 1
  3. 4, 2, 3, 1
  4. 2, 4, 1, 3
Show answer

Answer: A. Stockholm (1972), Rio (1992), Kyoto (1997), Paris (2015).

Q14 (Unit IX). Assertion (A): A patent in India lasts 20 years from the date of filing. Reason (R): Section 53 of the Patents Act, 1970 fixes the term at 20 years from the filing date.

  1. Both true; R explains A
  2. Both true; R does not explain A
  3. A true, R false
  4. A false, R true
Show answer

Answer: A. The term runs from filing, not from grant.

Q15 (Unit X). The institution of the Ombudsman originated in:

  1. The United Kingdom
  2. Sweden
  3. The United States
  4. France
Show answer

Answer: B. Sweden, 1809. India’s counterpart is the Lokpal under the Act of 2013.

How to use UGC NET law practice questions

  1. Do a unit at a time first. Solve 30 to 50 questions per unit and tag each error by cause.
  2. Turn every error into a one-line rule, such as “Absolute liability has no exceptions”.
  3. Move to full mocks in late November, with Paper 1 and Paper 2 together in 180 minutes.
  4. Learn BNS numbers with the IPC numbers they replaced, because both appear.

Frequently asked questions

Where can I find UGC NET law practice questions with answers?

Start with NTA’s own previous papers and answer keys, then use original practice sets such as this page. Previous papers show the real pattern; fresh questions test your learning.

Which question formats come in UGC NET Law?

Direct MCQs, assertion and reason, match the lists, chronological order and statement-based questions. Practise all five, as each needs a different elimination method.

Is there negative marking in UGC NET Law?

No. Paper 2 (Law) has 100 questions for 200 marks and there is no negative marking, so attempt every question.

Quick quiz

Q1. Section 66A of the IT Act, 2000 was struck down in:

  1. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015)
  2. K.S. Puttaswamy (2017)
  3. Novartis v. Union of India (2013)
  4. Anuradha Bhasin (2020)
Show answer

Answer: A. It violated Article 19(1)(a) and was not saved by Article 19(2).

Q2. The precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle were held part of Indian environmental law in:

  1. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum (1996)
  2. Olga Tellis (1985)
  3. Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
  4. Maneka Gandhi (1978)
Show answer

Answer: A. The Court treated both as essential features of sustainable development.

Q3. Minor’s agreement is void ab initio according to:

  1. Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
  2. Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose
  3. Hadley v. Baxendale
  4. Salomon v. Salomon
Show answer

Answer: B. The Privy Council decided Mohori Bibee in 1903.

Sources

  • UGC NET syllabus, Law (code 58), Units I to X; NTA UGC NET December 2026 Information Bulletin (corrigendum of 16 October 2026)
  • Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, ss.20, 63, 100, 101, 111; Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, s.138; Patents Act, 1970, s.53; Consumer Protection Act, 2019
  • Statute of the International Court of Justice, Article 38(1); Geneva Conventions (1949) and Additional Protocols (1977)

This page is for education and general information, not legal advice for a specific case. Law as on 29 October 2026.

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