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Author: Lexfolio Team

  • UGC NET Law December 2026: Date, Pattern, Cut-offs and Strategy

    UGC NET Law December 2026: Date, Pattern, Cut-offs and Strategy

    UGC NET Law December 2026 will be held from 14 to 18 December 2026 and on 21 December 2026 in computer based mode, with the subject-wise date to be announced separately by the NTA. The paper is 150 questions for 300 marks in 180 minutes with no negative marking, and in the June 2026 session the unreserved cut-off in Law (subject code 58) was 204 for JRF and 178 for Assistant Professor. Online applications close on 28 October 2026, with a late-fee window till 31 October 2026.

    UGC NET Law December 2026: key dates

    The NTA opened the portal on 8 October 2026 and issued a corrigendum on 16 October 2026 revising the exam dates from 14 to 19 December (with 20 and 21 December as buffer days) to 14 to 18 December and 21 December 2026. Every date below is from the updated information bulletin.

    EventDate
    Online application window8 October 2026 to 28 October 2026 (up to 11:50 pm)
    Last date for fee payment28 October 2026 (up to 11:50 pm)
    Late submission with late fee of Rs 50029 October 2026 to 31 October 2026 (up to 11:50 pm)
    Correction window2 November 2026 to 4 November 2026
    Intimation of exam city23 November 2026
    Admit card download7 December 2026
    Examination dates14 December 2026 to 18 December 2026 and 21 December 2026
    Shift timingTo be intimated later
    Answer key and resultTo be announced later

    The subject-wise schedule, which tells Law candidates their exact day, has not been published yet; the corrigendum says it will be released separately. Keep all six days free until the date-wise schedule appears on ugcnet.nta.nic.in, and check the admit card for the centre, date and shift.

    Application fee

    CategoryFee
    General or UnreservedRs 1,150
    General-EWS and OBC-NCLRs 600
    SC, ST and Third GenderRs 325
    PwD and PwBDRs 325

    Gateway charges and GST are extra, and the Rs 500 late fee is added over the category fee between 29 and 31 October.

    Exam pattern for Law (subject code 58)

    The pattern is common to all 87 subjects. There are two papers, both objective, attempted in a single sitting of 180 minutes with no break between them. Law is Paper II and carries twice the weight of Paper I.

    FeaturePaper IPaper II (Law)
    What it testsTeaching and research aptitude, reasoning, comprehension, general awarenessDomain knowledge across the ten units of the Law syllabus
    Questions50100
    Marks100200
    Marks per question22
    Negative markingNoneNone
    Duration180 minutes for both papers together, no break
    ModeComputer Based Test

    Two rules in the marking scheme deserve attention. A question that you answer and then mark for review is still evaluated, while a question left unanswered is not evaluated even if it is marked for review. And if a question turns out to have more than one correct option, two marks go to everyone who picked any of them. Since there is no penalty for a wrong answer, leaving any question blank is a mistake.

    The ten units of Paper II are Jurisprudence; Constitutional and Administrative Law; Public International Law and IHL; Law of Crimes; Law of Torts and Consumer Protection; Commercial Law; Family Law; Environment and Human Rights Law; Intellectual Property Rights and Information Technology Law; and Comparative Public Law and Systems of Governance. The topic list under each unit, with weightage and a book list, is in the UGC NET Law syllabus 2026 guide.

    Eligibility in brief

    General and EWS candidates need at least 55 per cent in the Master’s degree, and OBC-NCL, SC, ST, PwD, PwBD and Third Gender candidates need at least 50 per cent, in each case without rounding off. Final-year LL.M. students can apply provisionally. Candidates with a four-year or eight-semester bachelor’s degree can also appear, with a minimum of 75 per cent in aggregate and a five per cent relaxation for reserved categories. For JRF the upper age is 30 years as on 1 December 2026, with up to five years of relaxation for reserved categories, women and research experience. There is no upper age limit for Assistant Professor eligibility or Ph.D. admission.

    How the cut-off is decided

    There is no fixed passing mark. The information bulletin lays down a five-step method. The number of candidates to be declared eligible for Assistant Professor is fixed at 6 per cent of those who appeared in both papers across all subjects. That pool is split among categories as per the reservation policy. To be counted at all, a General or EWS candidate must score at least 40 per cent aggregate in the two papers taken together, that is 120 out of 300, and a reserved category candidate at least 35 per cent, that is 105 out of 300. The slots for each subject and category are then worked out in proportion to how many candidates of that category cleared the minimum in that subject, and the aggregate marks at which the slots run out become the cut-off. JRF slots are allocated the same way from a separate pool, and normalised marks are used where a subject runs in more than one shift.

    So the Law cut-off moves with the strength of the field in that session, not with the difficulty of the paper alone. JRF slots are far fewer than Assistant Professor slots, which is why the unreserved JRF line has sat 22 to 30 marks above the Assistant Professor line in each of the last three sessions.

    UGC NET Law cut-off trends: last three sessions

    The figures below are taken from the subject and category wise cut-off documents published by the NTA after each result. All marks are out of 300. The number in brackets is the count of candidates that the NTA lists against that cut-off.

    CategorySessionJRFAssistant ProfessorPh.D. only
    UnreservedJune 2026204 (56)178 (992)160 (1,921)
    December 2025218 (59)188 (955)166 (2,202)
    June 2025200 (73)178 (1,057)158 (2,421)
    OBC-NCLJune 2026190 (36)164 (401)148 (830)
    December 2025202 (39)172 (463)154 (768)
    June 2025190 (41)166 (439)146 (1,011)
    EWSJune 2026194 (18)164 (183)144 (375)
    December 2025210 (15)174 (225)150 (467)
    June 2025194 (17)164 (244)142 (499)
    SCJune 2026180 (20)154 (286)138 (635)
    December 2025196 (21)162 (298)144 (621)
    June 2025178 (28)156 (327)140 (672)
    STJune 2026174 (8)150 (105)134 (231)
    December 2025182 (6)156 (92)140 (214)
    June 2025176 (6)150 (96)134 (241)

    Three things stand out. The unreserved JRF line has stayed between 200 and 218, which is 67 to 73 per cent of the total marks. The unreserved Assistant Professor line has stayed between 178 and 188, roughly 59 to 63 per cent. The December 2025 session ran higher than the June sessions on either side of it, and its figures are the highest in the table for every category and every level. A safe target for December 2026 is therefore 190 plus for Assistant Professor and 220 plus for JRF in the unreserved category, with the OBC-NCL, EWS, SC and ST targets around 10 to 30 marks lower as the table shows.

    Strategy for the seven weeks left

    There are roughly seven weeks to the first exam day. The pattern rewards breadth and recall, so the plan should cover all ten units and Paper I at least twice.

    Weeks 1 to 3: first pass of all ten units

    Take the ten units in the order the syllabus lists them and finish one unit every two days, using the official topic list as the boundary. For Law of Crimes learn the new section numbers of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam alongside the old IPC, CrPC and Evidence Act numbers. Paper I needs 45 minutes a day from the start, not an afternoon at the end; its ten units of five questions each are the cheapest 100 marks in the exam.

    Weeks 4 and 5: previous papers and the weak units

    Work through the last six to eight Law papers question by question and tag each wrong answer to its unit. The units that produce the most errors get the second pass first. Constitutional and Administrative Law, Jurisprudence and Law of Crimes are the longest units in the official topic list, so the second pass should not skip them even if they feel familiar.

    Weeks 6 and 7: full-length timed tests

    Sit at least six full 150-question mocks in a single 180-minute block. The aim is a stable attempt order: Paper II first if your Law recall is strong, Paper I first if you tend to run out of time on reading comprehension. Review every mock on the same day.

    Checklist before you apply and appear

    • Apply on ugcnet.nta.nic.in before 11:50 pm on 28 October 2026, or by 31 October with the Rs 500 late fee, and pay the category fee of Rs 1,150, Rs 600 or Rs 325.
    • Choose subject code 58 Law and check the Master’s degree percentage, category certificate and exam city choices before the correction window closes on 4 November.
    • Download the exam city slip on 23 November and the admit card on 7 December, and watch for the subject-wise schedule that fixes your date.
    • Carry the admit card, a valid photo identity and the documents the admit card lists; a pen is provided at the centre and the bulletin’s barred items list applies.
    • Attempt all 150 questions. There is no negative marking and unanswered questions are not evaluated.

    Exam angle: what the numbers mean for you

    Treat 120 out of 300 as the floor that gets you counted and 190 as the floor that gets you qualified for Assistant Professor in the unreserved category. If your mock scores are settling at 150 to 170, the fastest gains are in Paper I, which most Law candidates leave for the last week and underscore, and in the three or four Paper II units where the official topic list is short and the questions repeat: Jurisprudence, Family Law, Environment and Human Rights Law, and Intellectual Property Rights. If you are already at 190 plus and want JRF, the margin comes from the long units, Constitutional and Administrative Law, Law of Crimes and Commercial Law, where recent amendments and recent Supreme Court decisions are asked. Candidates who are also sitting the AIBE XXII a few weeks earlier should note that the Law of Crimes, Evidence and Constitutional Law reading overlaps, and that the AIBE is open book while the NET is not.

    FAQs

    What is the exam date for UGC NET Law December 2026?

    The NTA has fixed the UGC NET December 2026 examination for 14 to 18 December 2026 and 21 December 2026. The exact day for Law, subject code 58, will be published in the subject-wise schedule, which the NTA has said it will release separately. The exam city intimation is due on 23 November 2026 and the admit card on 7 December 2026.

    Is there negative marking in UGC NET Law?

    No. Each question carries two marks for a correct answer and there is no deduction for a wrong answer. Unanswered questions are not evaluated, so every question should be attempted.

    What was the UGC NET Law cut-off in June 2026?

    For the unreserved category the June 2026 Law cut-off was 204 out of 300 for JRF, 178 for Assistant Professor and 160 for Ph.D. only. The OBC-NCL figures were 190, 164 and 148; EWS 194, 164 and 144; SC 180, 154 and 138; and ST 174, 150 and 134.

    Can a final-year LL.M. student apply for UGC NET December 2026?

    Yes. Candidates in the final year of the Master’s degree, or those whose result is awaited, can apply and are admitted provisionally. They must complete the degree with the required percentage within two years of the result of the NET to claim eligibility.

    Can I apply after 28 October 2026?

    Yes, from 29 to 31 October 2026 with a late fee of Rs 500 over the category fee. After that the portal closes; the 2 to 4 November window is only for correcting an existing application.

    Sources

    The quickest way to find out where you stand against the 178 to 218 band is a full-length timed test under exam conditions. The Lexfolio UGC NET Law mock tests give you four complete 100-question Paper II papers with explanations, each covering all ten units, and the exam packs page has the AIBE and CLAT PG sets for candidates preparing for more than one exam this winter.

  • UPPSC RO ARO भर्ती 2026: 501 पद, अंतिम तिथि, योग्यता, परीक्षा पैटर्न

    UPPSC RO ARO भर्ती 2026: 501 पद, अंतिम तिथि, योग्यता, परीक्षा पैटर्न

    उत्तर प्रदेश लोक सेवा आयोग (UPPSC) ने वर्ष 2026 में समीक्षा अधिकारी (RO) और सहायक समीक्षा अधिकारी (ARO) के 501 पदों पर भर्ती की घोषणा की है। ऑनलाइन आवेदन 26 अक्टूबर 2026 से 26 नवंबर 2026 तक होंगे। आयु 1 जुलाई 2026 को 21 से 40 वर्ष होनी चाहिए और स्नातक उपाधि अनिवार्य है; ARO पदों के लिए ‘O’ लेवल कंप्यूटर प्रमाणपत्र और हिंदी टाइपिंग भी चाहिए।

    अंतिम अपडेट: 25 अक्टूबर 2026। आयोग ने संक्षिप्त सूचना जारी की है; पदवार विवरण, शुल्क और पाठ्यक्रम वाला विस्तृत विज्ञापन 26 अक्टूबर से वेबसाइट पर आना है। विज्ञापन आते ही यह पृष्ठ अपडेट किया जाएगा।

    UPPSC RO/ARO 2026: एक नज़र में

    बिंदुविवरण
    भर्ती संस्थाउत्तर प्रदेश लोक सेवा आयोग, प्रयागराज
    पदसमीक्षा अधिकारी (Review Officer) और सहायक समीक्षा अधिकारी (Assistant Review Officer)
    कुल पद501 (उ.प्र. सचिवालय, राजस्व परिषद आदि के अधियाचन)
    ऑनलाइन आवेदन26 अक्टूबर 2026 से 26 नवंबर 2026
    शुल्क जमा करने की अंतिम तिथि26 नवंबर 2026
    संशोधन (करेक्शन) की अंतिम तिथि3 दिसंबर 2026
    आयु सीमा1 जुलाई 2026 को 21 से 40 वर्ष (आरक्षित वर्गों को उ.प्र. नियमों के अनुसार छूट)
    चयन प्रक्रियाप्रारंभिक परीक्षा, मुख्य परीक्षा, हिंदी टाइपिंग परीक्षा (ARO पद)
    आधिकारिक वेबसाइटuppsc.up.nic.in

    महत्वपूर्ण तिथियाँ

    • संक्षिप्त सूचना: 25 अक्टूबर 2026
    • आवेदन प्रारंभ: 26 अक्टूबर 2026
    • आवेदन और शुल्क की अंतिम तिथि: 26 नवंबर 2026
    • संशोधन की अंतिम तिथि: 3 दिसंबर 2026
    • प्रारंभिक परीक्षा तिथि: अभी घोषित नहीं

    पिछली भर्ती (विज्ञापन A-7/E-1/2023, 411 पद) में अधिसूचना से अंतिम परिणाम तक लगभग ढाई वर्ष लगे। फरवरी 2024 में हुई प्रारंभिक परीक्षा पेपर लीक के कारण रद्द हुई और 27 जुलाई 2025 को दोबारा कराई गई। मुख्य परीक्षा फरवरी 2026 में हुई और अंतिम परिणाम 5 अप्रैल 2026 को आया। उस भर्ती में 10.7 लाख से अधिक अभ्यर्थियों ने आवेदन किया था, इसलिए प्रतियोगिता कड़ी रहेगी।

    पात्रता

    शैक्षिक योग्यता

    पदयोग्यता (पिछली भर्ती के अनुसार)
    समीक्षा अधिकारी (RO)किसी मान्यता प्राप्त विश्वविद्यालय से किसी भी विषय में स्नातक
    सहायक समीक्षा अधिकारी (ARO)स्नातक, साथ में DOEACC (अब NIELIT) का ‘O’ लेवल कंप्यूटर प्रमाणपत्र और 25 शब्द प्रति मिनट हिंदी टाइपिंग
    ARO (लेखा)लेखाशास्त्र सहित वाणिज्य स्नातक (B.Com)

    विधि स्नातक (LL.B. या BA LL.B.) भी RO और ARO दोनों के लिए पात्र हैं, क्योंकि योग्यता किसी भी विषय में स्नातक है। अंतिम वर्ष के छात्र विस्तृत विज्ञापन में देख लें कि डिग्री किस तिथि तक प्राप्त होनी चाहिए।

    आयु सीमा

    1 जुलाई 2026 को न्यूनतम 21 और अधिकतम 40 वर्ष। उत्तर प्रदेश के मूल निवासी अनुसूचित जाति, अनुसूचित जनजाति, अन्य पिछड़ा वर्ग और अन्य अधिसूचित वर्गों को उ.प्र. सरकार के नियमों के अनुसार आयु में छूट मिलेगी। आरक्षण का लाभ केवल उ.प्र. के मूल निवासियों को मिलता है।

    आवेदन शुल्क

    2026 का शुल्क विस्तृत विज्ञापन में स्पष्ट होगा। 2023 की भर्ती में शुल्क इस प्रकार था:

    वर्गशुल्क (2023)
    सामान्य, OBC, EWS125 रुपये
    SC, ST65 रुपये
    दिव्यांगजन25 रुपये

    आवेदन कैसे करें

    1. UPPSC की वेबसाइट uppsc.up.nic.in पर जाकर विज्ञापन वाला अनुभाग खोलें।
    2. यदि वन टाइम रजिस्ट्रेशन (OTR) नहीं किया है तो पहले वह पूरा करें। आयोग अब अपनी भर्तियों में OTR का उपयोग करता है।
    3. RO/ARO 2026 विज्ञापन खोलकर OTR संख्या से आवेदन भरें और जिन पदों के लिए आवेदन करना है उन्हें चुनें।
    4. निर्धारित आकार में फोटो और हस्ताक्षर अपलोड करें।
    5. 26 नवंबर 2026 से पहले ऑनलाइन शुल्क जमा कर आवेदन सबमिट करें और प्रिंटआउट सुरक्षित रखें।

    परीक्षा पैटर्न

    नीचे पिछली भर्ती का पैटर्न है। 2026 के विज्ञापन से मिलान अवश्य करें।

    प्रारंभिक परीक्षा (वस्तुनिष्ठ)

    प्रश्नपत्रप्रश्नअंकसमय
    सामान्य अध्ययन1401402 घंटे
    सामान्य हिंदी60601 घंटा
    कुल2002003 घंटे

    प्रत्येक गलत उत्तर पर एक-तिहाई अंक काटा जाता है। प्रारंभिक परीक्षा केवल छँटनी के लिए है; इसके अंक अंतिम मेरिट में नहीं जुड़ते।

    मुख्य परीक्षा

    प्रश्नपत्रप्रकारअंकसमय
    सामान्य अध्ययनवस्तुनिष्ठ1202 घंटे
    सामान्य हिंदी एवं प्रारूपणभाग 1 लिखित (100), भाग 2 वस्तुनिष्ठ शब्दावली (60)1603 घंटे
    हिंदी निबंधलिखित, तीन निबंध1203 घंटे
    कुल400

    इसके बाद ARO अभ्यर्थियों के लिए 25 शब्द प्रति मिनट की हिंदी टाइपिंग परीक्षा होती है, जो केवल अर्हकारी है।

    संक्षिप्त पाठ्यक्रम

    • सामान्य अध्ययन: सामान्य विज्ञान, भारत का इतिहास और राष्ट्रीय आंदोलन, भारतीय राजव्यवस्था, अर्थव्यवस्था और संस्कृति, कृषि, वाणिज्य और व्यापार, जनसंख्या, पारिस्थितिकी और शहरीकरण, विश्व और भारत का भूगोल, समसामयिक घटनाएँ, सामान्य बुद्धिमत्ता, और उत्तर प्रदेश का विशेष ज्ञान।
    • सामान्य हिंदी: विलोम, पर्यायवाची, अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द, वाक्य शुद्धि, समानार्थी शब्दों का प्रयोग, संज्ञा से विशेषण बनाना।
    • प्रारूपण: संक्षेपण, शासकीय और अर्धशासकीय पत्र, कार्यालय ज्ञाप, परिपत्र, अनुस्मारक, प्रशासनिक शब्दावली (अंग्रेज़ी से हिंदी और हिंदी से अंग्रेज़ी), मुहावरे और कंप्यूटर का सामान्य ज्ञान।
    • हिंदी निबंध: तीन खंडों से तीन निबंध: साहित्य, संस्कृति और समाज; विज्ञान, अर्थव्यवस्था और कृषि; राष्ट्रीय और अंतरराष्ट्रीय घटनाएँ, आपदाएँ और विकास योजनाएँ।

    परीक्षा की दृष्टि से: विधि स्नातकों का लाभ

    • सामान्य अध्ययन में भारतीय राजव्यवस्था का बड़ा हिस्सा है: मौलिक अधिकार, नीति निदेशक तत्व, संसद, राज्यपाल, राज्य विधानमंडल, न्यायपालिका और संवैधानिक संस्थाएँ विधि के मूल विषय हैं।
    • शासकीय पत्र और कार्यालय ज्ञाप के प्रारूपण में विधि छात्रों का सटीक लेखन काम आता है।
    • 1 जुलाई 2024 से IPC, CrPC और साक्ष्य अधिनियम की जगह BNS, BNSS और BSA लागू होने जैसे कानूनी बदलाव समसामयिकी में पूछे जाते हैं।
    • निर्णायक विषय हिंदी है: मुख्य परीक्षा के 400 में से 280 अंक हिंदी पर आधारित हैं, इसलिए रोज़ हिंदी व्याकरण और निबंध का अभ्यास उतना ही ज़रूरी है जितना सामान्य अध्ययन।

    अक्सर पूछे जाने वाले प्रश्न

    UPPSC RO/ARO 2026 में कितने पद हैं?

    आयोग की संक्षिप्त सूचना के अनुसार RO और ARO के कुल 501 पद हैं। पदवार और वर्गवार विवरण विस्तृत विज्ञापन में आएगा।

    RO/ARO 2026 के लिए आवेदन की अंतिम तिथि क्या है?

    ऑनलाइन आवेदन और शुल्क दोनों की अंतिम तिथि 26 नवंबर 2026 है। संशोधन 3 दिसंबर 2026 तक हो सकेगा।

    क्या LL.B. पास अभ्यर्थी RO/ARO के लिए आवेदन कर सकते हैं?

    हाँ। RO के लिए किसी भी विषय में स्नातक पर्याप्त है। ARO के लिए ‘O’ लेवल प्रमाणपत्र और 25 शब्द प्रति मिनट हिंदी टाइपिंग भी चाहिए।

    क्या प्रारंभिक परीक्षा में नेगेटिव मार्किंग है?

    हाँ। पिछली भर्ती में प्रत्येक गलत उत्तर पर एक-तिहाई अंक काटा गया था।

    RO/ARO 2026 की आयु सीमा क्या है?

    1 जुलाई 2026 को 21 से 40 वर्ष, उ.प्र. के मूल निवासी आरक्षित वर्गों को छूट के साथ।

    त्वरित क्विज़

    Q1. UPPSC RO/ARO 2026 के लिए ऑनलाइन आवेदन की अंतिम तिथि क्या है?

    1. 3 दिसंबर 2026
    2. 26 नवंबर 2026
    3. 26 अक्टूबर 2026
    4. 1 जुलाई 2026
    उत्तर देखें

    उत्तर: B. आवेदन 26 नवंबर 2026 तक होंगे; 3 दिसंबर संशोधन की अंतिम तिथि है।

    Q2. RO/ARO 2026 में आयु किस तिथि को गिनी जाएगी?

    1. 1 जनवरी 2026
    2. 26 अक्टूबर 2026
    3. 1 जुलाई 2026
    4. 1 अगस्त 2026
    उत्तर देखें

    उत्तर: C. आयु 1 जुलाई 2026 को गिनी जाएगी, सीमा 21 से 40 वर्ष है।

    Q3. पिछली भर्ती के पैटर्न में मुख्य परीक्षा कुल कितने अंकों की थी?

    1. 200
    2. 420
    3. 360
    4. 400
    उत्तर देखें

    उत्तर: D. सामान्य अध्ययन 120, सामान्य हिंदी एवं प्रारूपण 160 और हिंदी निबंध 120, कुल 400।

    Q4. कौन सी अतिरिक्त योग्यता ARO के लिए है, RO के लिए नहीं?

    1. ‘O’ लेवल प्रमाणपत्र और 25 शब्द प्रति मिनट हिंदी टाइपिंग
    2. स्नातकोत्तर उपाधि
    3. दो वर्ष की सरकारी सेवा
    4. LL.B. उपाधि
    उत्तर देखें

    उत्तर: A. ARO के लिए NIELIT का ‘O’ लेवल प्रमाणपत्र और हिंदी टाइपिंग आवश्यक है।

    Q5. BNS ने IPC का स्थान किस तिथि से लिया?

    1. 1 जनवरी 2024
    2. 1 जुलाई 2024
    3. 26 जनवरी 2025
    4. 25 दिसंबर 2023
    उत्तर देखें

    उत्तर: B. BNS, BNSS और BSA 1 जुलाई 2024 से लागू हुए।

    स्रोत

    • RO/ARO 2026 भर्ती पर UPPSC की संक्षिप्त सूचना (25 अक्टूबर 2026 की रिपोर्ट)
    • UPPSC विज्ञापन A-7/E-1/2023 (RO/ARO 2023) और उसके परिणाम संबंधी सूचनाएँ
    • उत्तर प्रदेश लोक सेवा आयोग की वेबसाइट uppsc.up.nic.in

    यह पृष्ठ सामान्य जानकारी के लिए है। आवेदन से पहले UPPSC का आधिकारिक विज्ञापन अवश्य देखें।

    हर सुबह एक निःशुल्क MCQ टेलीग्राम पर पाएँ

    जुड़ें

  • UPPSC RO ARO 2026: 501 Posts, Dates, Eligibility, Exam Pattern

    UPPSC RO ARO 2026: 501 Posts, Dates, Eligibility, Exam Pattern

    UPPSC has announced recruitment for 501 posts of Review Officer (RO) and Assistant Review Officer (ARO) in 2026. Online applications open on 26 October 2026 and close on 26 November 2026. Candidates must be 21 to 40 years old on 1 July 2026 and hold a bachelor’s degree, with an O Level computer certificate and Hindi typing for ARO posts.

    Last updated: 25 October 2026. The Commission has released a short notice; the detailed advertisement with the post-wise break-up, fee and syllabus is due on its website from 26 October. We will update this page as soon as it is out.

    UPPSC RO/ARO 2026 at a glance

    ItemDetails
    Recruiting bodyUttar Pradesh Public Service Commission (UPPSC), Prayagraj
    PostsReview Officer (Samiksha Adhikari) and Assistant Review Officer (Sahayak Samiksha Adhikari)
    Total vacancies501 (requisitions from the U.P. Secretariat and the Board of Revenue, among others)
    Online application26 October 2026 to 26 November 2026
    Last date for fee26 November 2026
    Correction windowUp to 3 December 2026
    Age limit21 to 40 years as on 1 July 2026 (relaxation for reserved categories as per U.P. rules)
    SelectionPreliminary exam, Main exam, Hindi typing test (ARO posts)
    Official websiteuppsc.up.nic.in

    Important dates

    • Short notice: released on 25 October 2026.
    • Applications open: 26 October 2026.
    • Last date to apply and pay the fee: 26 November 2026.
    • Last date for corrections: 3 December 2026.
    • Prelims date: not yet announced.

    For context, the last cycle (Advertisement A-7/E-1/2023, 411 posts) took about two and a half years from notification to final result. Its prelims, first held in February 2024, was cancelled after a paper leak and re-held on 27 July 2025. Mains followed in February 2026 and the final result came on 5 April 2026. More than 10.7 lakh candidates applied in that cycle, so expect heavy competition.

    Eligibility

    Educational qualification

    PostQualification (as in the last cycle)
    Review Officer (RO)Bachelor’s degree in any subject from a recognised university
    Assistant Review Officer (ARO)Bachelor’s degree, plus the ‘O’ Level computer certificate from DOEACC (now NIELIT), plus Hindi typing at 25 words per minute
    ARO (Accounts)Bachelor’s degree in Commerce with accountancy

    Law graduates (LL.B. or BA LL.B.) are eligible for both RO and ARO because the requirement is any bachelor’s degree. Final-year students should check the detailed advertisement for the date by which the degree must be held.

    Age limit

    Minimum 21 years and maximum 40 years as on 1 July 2026. Candidates who are domiciled in Uttar Pradesh and belong to SC, ST, OBC and other notified categories get the age relaxation allowed under U.P. government rules. Reservation benefits are available only to U.P. domicile candidates.

    Application fee

    The 2026 fee will be confirmed in the detailed advertisement. In the 2023 cycle it was:

    CategoryFee (2023 cycle)
    General, OBC, EWSRs 125
    SC, STRs 65
    Persons with disabilityRs 25

    How to apply

    1. Go to the UPPSC website, uppsc.up.nic.in, and open the “All Notifications / Advertisements” section.
    2. Complete One Time Registration (OTR) if you have not done so already. UPPSC now uses OTR for its recruitments.
    3. Open the RO/ARO 2026 advertisement, fill in the application with your OTR number, and choose the posts you are applying for.
    4. Upload your photograph and signature in the prescribed size.
    5. Pay the fee online and submit before 26 November 2026. Save the final printout.

    Exam pattern

    The pattern below is the one used in the last cycle. Confirm it against the 2026 advertisement.

    Preliminary exam (objective)

    PaperQuestionsMarksTime
    General Studies1401402 hours
    General Hindi60601 hour
    Total2002003 hours

    One third of a mark is deducted for each wrong answer. Prelims is for shortlisting only; its marks do not count in the final merit.

    Main exam

    PaperTypeMarksTime
    General StudiesObjective1202 hours
    General Hindi and DraftingPart 1 written (100), Part 2 objective vocabulary (60)1603 hours
    Hindi EssayWritten, three essays1203 hours
    Total400

    ARO candidates then take a qualifying Hindi typing test at 25 words per minute.

    Syllabus in brief

    • General Studies: general science, history of India and the national movement, Indian polity, economy and culture, agriculture, commerce and trade, population, ecology and urbanisation, world and Indian geography, current affairs, general intelligence, and special knowledge of Uttar Pradesh.
    • General Hindi (prelims and mains Part 2): antonyms, synonyms, one word substitution, sentence correction, words of similar use, and noun and adjective formation.
    • Drafting (mains Part 1): precis, official and demi-official letters, office memos, circulars, reminders, administrative vocabulary (English to Hindi and back), idioms, and basic computer knowledge.
    • Hindi Essay: three essays from three groups: literature, culture and society; science, economy and agriculture; and national or international events, disasters and development schemes.

    Exam angle: where law graduates gain

    • Indian polity carries real weight in GS. Fundamental rights, DPSPs, Parliament, the Governor, the State Legislature, the judiciary and constitutional bodies are core law-school topics.
    • Drafting questions on official letters and memos reward the precise writing law students practise.
    • Recent legal changes, such as the BNS, BNSS and BSA replacing the IPC, CrPC and Evidence Act from 1 July 2024, regularly appear in current-affairs questions.
    • Hindi is the deciding factor. Most of the main exam (280 of 400 marks) is in Hindi, so daily Hindi grammar and essay practice matter as much as GS.

    Frequently asked questions

    How many vacancies are there in UPPSC RO/ARO 2026?

    The Commission’s short notice gives 501 posts of RO and ARO. The post-wise and category-wise break-up will be in the detailed advertisement.

    What is the last date to apply for UPPSC RO/ARO 2026?

    26 November 2026 for both the online form and the fee. Corrections are allowed until 3 December 2026.

    Can a law graduate apply for RO/ARO?

    Yes. Any bachelor’s degree qualifies for RO. For ARO you also need the O Level computer certificate and Hindi typing at 25 words per minute.

    Is there negative marking in RO/ARO prelims?

    Yes. In the last cycle one third of a mark was deducted for each wrong answer.

    What is the age limit for RO/ARO 2026?

    21 to 40 years as on 1 July 2026, with relaxation for reserved categories of U.P. domicile.

    Quick quiz

    Q1. Up to which date can candidates apply online for UPPSC RO/ARO 2026?

    1. 3 December 2026
    2. 26 November 2026
    3. 26 October 2026
    4. 1 July 2026
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Applications close on 26 November 2026. 3 December is the last date for corrections.

    Q2. On which date is a candidate’s age counted for RO/ARO 2026?

    1. 1 January 2026
    2. 26 October 2026
    3. 1 July 2026
    4. 1 August 2026
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Age is reckoned as on 1 July 2026, with a range of 21 to 40 years.

    Q3. How many marks does the RO/ARO main exam carry in total (last cycle pattern)?

    1. 200
    2. 420
    3. 360
    4. 400
    Show answer

    Answer: D. General Studies 120, General Hindi and Drafting 160 and Hindi Essay 120 add up to 400.

    Q4. Which extra requirement applies to ARO but not to RO?

    1. O Level computer certificate and Hindi typing at 25 wpm
    2. A postgraduate degree
    3. Two years of government service
    4. An LL.B. degree
    Show answer

    Answer: A. ARO posts require the NIELIT O Level certificate and Hindi typing at 25 words per minute.

    Q5. From which date did the BNS replace the IPC, a topic often asked in current affairs?

    1. 1 January 2024
    2. 1 July 2024
    3. 26 January 2025
    4. 25 December 2023
    Show answer

    Answer: B. The BNS, BNSS and BSA came into force on 1 July 2024.

    Sources

    • UPPSC short notice on RO/ARO 2026 recruitment, as reported on 25 October 2026
    • UPPSC Advertisement A-7/E-1/2023 (RO/ARO 2023) and its result notices
    • Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission website, uppsc.up.nic.in

    This page is for general information. Always rely on the official UPPSC advertisement before applying.

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  • Section 65B Evidence Act in BSA: Section 63 Certificate Explained

    Section 65B Evidence Act in BSA: Section 63 Certificate Explained

    Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is now Section 63 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA). The basic conditions for admitting computer output are the same, but the certificate under Section 63(4) must now be in the form given in the Schedule, in two parts: Part A signed by the person in charge of the device and Part B signed by an expert, with hash values.

    PointDetails
    Old sectionSection 65B, Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (with 65A)
    New sectionSection 63, BSA (with Section 62 replacing 65A)
    SubjectAdmissibility of electronic records
    CertificateMandatory, in the Schedule form, with every submission
    Who signsPart A: party or person in charge of the device; Part B: expert
    Key additionHash value of the record; “communication device” and semiconductor memory expressly covered
    Expert opinionSection 39(2) BSA: Examiner of Electronic Evidence under Section 79A IT Act
    In force from1 July 2024

    What Section 63 BSA says

    Section 63(1): computer output as a document

    Information in an electronic record that is printed on paper, or stored, recorded or copied in optical or magnetic media or semiconductor memory, and produced by a “computer or any communication device” or otherwise stored in electronic form, is deemed to be a document. If the conditions of the section are met, it is admissible without further proof or production of the original.

    Section 63(2): four conditions

    • the output was produced while the device was regularly used to store or process information for activities regularly carried on by the person in lawful control of it;
    • information of that kind was regularly fed into the device in the ordinary course of those activities;
    • throughout the material period the device was operating properly, or any malfunction did not affect the record or its accuracy; and
    • the record reproduces, or is derived from, information fed in during the ordinary course of those activities.

    Section 63(3): combinations of devices

    Where several devices were used, whether standalone, in a computer system or network, through a computer resource or an intermediary, they are treated as a single device.

    Section 63(4): the certificate

    Wherever an electronic record is produced for admission, a certificate must be submitted along with it “at each instance”. It must identify the record and how it was produced, give particulars of the devices involved, and deal with the conditions in Section 63(2). It is signed by a person in charge of the device or the relevant activities, “and an expert”, and statements may be made to the best of the signatory’s knowledge and belief.

    The Schedule certificate: Part A and Part B

    • Part A is filled by the party producing the record. It identifies the record and the device used, states who was in lawful control of it, confirms the Section 63(2) conditions and records the hash value of the record.
    • Part B is “to be filled by the expert”. The expert confirms the hash value and the algorithm used (for example SHA-256 or MD5). A hash is a unique code generated from the file; any change in the file changes the hash, so it proves integrity.

    In Pune Bar Association v. Union of India (W.P. (C) No. 599 of 2026), reported on 28 May 2026, a bench led by Chief Justice Surya Kant upheld Section 63(4) against a challenge of manifest arbitrariness. It held that Part B can be signed not only by an Examiner of Electronic Evidence notified under Section 79A of the IT Act but also by any person the court is satisfied has special skill in computer science and cyber forensics, since Section 39(2) BSA does not exclude Section 39(1).

    What changed from Section 65B

    • Prescribed format: Section 65B(4) had no fixed form. The BSA Schedule now fixes one, in two parts.
    • Expert signature added: the words “and an expert” are new. Under 65B, only the responsible official signed.
    • Hash value: integrity is now shown through a hash in the certificate itself.
    • Wider device language: “communication device” and semiconductor memory are expressly covered, which settles doubts about mobile phones and pen drives.
    • “At each instance”: a certificate must accompany the record each time it is submitted.
    • Primary evidence widened: Section 57 BSA adds Explanations treating an electronic record from proper custody as primary evidence “unless it is disputed”, and treating each file, each stored video recording and each automated storage instance (including temporary files) as primary evidence.
    • Section 61 BSA: an electronic record cannot be denied admissibility merely because it is electronic, and has the same legal effect as other documents, subject to Section 63.

    Important case law

    Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer (2014) 10 SCC 473

    A three-judge bench held that Sections 65A and 65B form a complete code for electronic evidence. A secondary copy of an electronic record (such as a CD) is inadmissible without a Section 65B(4) certificate. It overruled the contrary view in State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu (2005) on this point.

    Shafhi Mohammad v. State of Himachal Pradesh (2018)

    A two-judge bench relaxed the rule, saying the certificate was procedural and could be dispensed with where the party was not in possession of the device. This created a conflict.

    Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal (2020) 7 SCC 1

    Decided on 14 July 2020 by Justices R.F. Nariman, S. Ravindra Bhat and V. Ramasubramanian. The Court held:

    • the certificate is a condition precedent to admissibility of electronic evidence; Anvar P.V. is correct law and Shafhi Mohammad is overruled;
    • no certificate is needed if the original device is produced, for example when the owner of a phone or laptop steps into the witness box and proves it;
    • where a certificate is demanded and refused, the party can apply to the court to direct its production;
    • the certificate can be produced at a later stage of trial, provided the accused is not prejudiced;
    • telecom and internet providers were directed to preserve call detail records seized in investigation.

    These principles continue to guide courts under Section 63 BSA, since the core structure of the provision is the same.

    Common confusions

    Original device vs copy

    If the original phone or hard disk is produced and proved, it is primary evidence. A printout, CD, pen drive or screenshot is computer output and needs the Section 63(4) certificate.

    Admissibility vs proof of truth

    A certificate makes the record admissible. Its reliability, and whether it was tampered with, is still for the court to weigh.

    For the general public: using WhatsApp chats, emails or CCTV in court

    • Do not delete or forward-edit the original; keep the device safe, since the original device is the best evidence.
    • Export chats or download footage, and record the date, device and method used.
    • Prepare the Schedule certificate: Part A signed by you (or the person in charge of the device) and Part B by a cyber forensic expert, both mentioning the same hash value.
    • File the certificate along with the record. If an organisation (bank, telecom company, housing society for CCTV) holds the data, ask it in writing for a certificate; if it refuses, apply to the court for a direction.
    • For CCTV, ask for preservation quickly, as many systems overwrite footage within days.

    Exam angle

    • 65A = 62 BSA; 65B = 63 BSA; 45A = 39(2) BSA.
    • Certificate now has a fixed form in the Schedule with Part A and Part B and a hash value.
    • Anvar P.V. (2014) 10 SCC 473 and Arjun Panditrao Khotkar (2020) 7 SCC 1 are the leading cases; Shafhi Mohammad was overruled.
    • No certificate needed when the original device itself is produced.
    • Section 57 BSA Explanations make electronic records from proper custody primary evidence unless disputed.

    Frequently asked questions

    What is the new section for 65B Evidence Act?

    Section 65B is now Section 63 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, in force from 1 July 2024.

    Is the 65B certificate still mandatory under BSA?

    Yes. A certificate under Section 63(4) in the Schedule form must accompany the electronic record at each instance it is submitted, unless the original device is itself produced and proved.

    Who signs the Section 63 certificate?

    Part A is signed by the party or the person in charge of the device, and Part B by an expert. The Supreme Court in 2026 accepted that a person with proven expertise in computer science and cyber forensics can sign Part B.

    Are WhatsApp chats admissible without a certificate?

    Screenshots or printouts need a Section 63(4) certificate. If the phone itself is produced and proved by its owner, a certificate is not required.

    Can the certificate be filed later?

    Yes. Arjun Panditrao Khotkar allows a later production during trial, so long as it does not cause prejudice to the other side.

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    Quick quiz

    Q1. Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act corresponds to which BSA section?

    1. Section 61
    2. Section 62
    3. Section 57
    4. Section 63
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Section 63 BSA deals with admissibility of electronic records; Section 62 replaces 65A.

    Q2. Which case overruled Shafhi Mohammad and held the certificate to be a condition precedent?

    1. Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal
    2. Navjot Sandhu
    3. Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer
    4. Pune Bar Association v. Union of India
    Show answer

    Answer: A. The three-judge bench in 2020 restored the Anvar P.V. position and overruled Shafhi Mohammad.

    Q3. Under the BSA Schedule, Part B of the certificate is filled by:

    1. the trial judge
    2. an expert
    3. the investigating officer only
    4. the opposite party
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Part A is for the party or person in charge; Part B is “to be filled by the expert”.

    Q4. Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer is reported as:

    1. (2020) 7 SCC 1
    2. (2005) 11 SCC 600
    3. (2014) 10 SCC 473
    4. (2018) 2 SCC 801
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Anvar P.V. was decided in 2014 by a three-judge bench and is reported at (2014) 10 SCC 473.

    Q5. When is a Section 63(4) certificate not needed?

    1. When the record is a CCTV clip on a pen drive
    2. When the opposite party consents orally
    3. When the record is a printout of an email
    4. When the original device is produced and proved by its owner
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Producing the original device makes it primary evidence; copies and printouts need the certificate.

    Sources

    • Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, Sections 39, 57, 61, 62, 63 and the Schedule (India Code)
    • Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer (2014) 10 SCC 473
    • Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal (2020) 7 SCC 1
    • Pune Bar Association v. Union of India, W.P. (C) No. 599 of 2026, Supreme Court of India

    This page is for education and general information, not legal advice for a specific case.

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  • Section 509 IPC in BNS: Section 79 Insulting Modesty, Bail

    Section 509 IPC in BNS: Section 79 Insulting Modesty, Bail

    Section 509 IPC is now Section 79 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS). Any word, sound, gesture, object shown, or intrusion upon privacy intended to insult the modesty of a woman is punishable with simple imprisonment up to three years and fine. The offence is cognizable, bailable and compoundable by the woman with the court’s permission.

    PointDetails
    Old sectionSection 509 IPC
    New sectionSection 79 BNS
    OffenceWord, gesture or act intended to insult the modesty of a woman
    PunishmentSimple imprisonment up to 3 years, and fine
    CognizableYes
    BailableYes
    CompoundableYes, by the woman insulted or whose privacy was intruded upon, with the court’s permission (Section 359 BNSS, Table 2)
    Triable byAny Magistrate

    What Section 79 BNS says

    Section 79 punishes a person who, intending to insult the modesty of a woman, does any of the following:

    • utters any words or makes any sound, intending that she hears it;
    • makes any gesture, intending that she sees it;
    • exhibits any object “in any form”, intending that she sees it; or
    • intrudes upon her privacy.

    No physical contact is needed. This is what separates it from Section 74, which needs assault or criminal force.

    Ingredients

    1. The victim is a woman.
    2. The accused uttered words, made a sound or gesture, exhibited an object, or intruded upon her privacy.
    3. The accused intended to insult her modesty.
    4. The words or sounds were meant to be heard, or the gesture or object meant to be seen, by her.

    Intention is the key. A remark not aimed at the woman, or made without any intent to insult her modesty, will not satisfy the section. Courts look at the words used, the context, the place and the conduct of the accused.

    What changed from the IPC

    The punishment is the same as under Section 509 IPC: simple imprisonment up to three years, and fine. The classification is also unchanged.

    The one textual change is the phrase “in any form” after “exhibits any object”. This makes clear that the object need not be physical. Images, videos or material shown through a screen or sent digitally fit more comfortably within the provision.

    Section 79 and online conduct

    Insulting messages, obscene images or videos sent to a woman can attract Section 79, depending on the content and intent. The same facts may also attract the Information Technology Act, 2000 (for example, Sections 66E and 67) and, where the conduct is repeated monitoring or contact, stalking under Section 78 BNS. The police decide the sections on the facts; the complainant only needs to state what happened.

    Important case law

    • Rupan Deol Bajaj v. Kanwar Pal Singh Gill (1995): a senior police officer’s conduct towards a woman officer at a social gathering led to charges under Sections 354 and 509 IPC. The Supreme Court refused to quash the case and stressed that the test of modesty is whether the act is an affront to a woman’s sense of decency judged by common notions.

    Common confusions

    • Section 79 vs Section 74: Section 79 involves no physical force; Section 74 needs assault or criminal force.
    • Section 79 vs Section 75(1)(iv): sexually coloured remarks by a man are sexual harassment under Section 75 (up to one year). Section 79 is wider in form (words, sounds, gestures, objects, privacy) and carries up to three years, but needs intent to insult modesty.
    • Section 79 vs Section 296: obscene acts or songs in a public place, causing annoyance to others, fall under Section 296 BNS (old 294 IPC). Section 79 is about a specific woman’s modesty.
    • Bailable but cognizable: the police can register an FIR and arrest without warrant, but the accused is entitled to bail.

    Practical guidance for the public

    • File the complaint at the nearest police station. Under the proviso to Section 173(1) BNSS, it is recorded by a woman police officer or woman officer.
    • Keep evidence: screenshots with dates, the sender’s number or profile, names of witnesses, and the place and time.
    • For online incidents, a complaint can also be lodged on the National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal (cybercrime.gov.in) or through the helpline 1930.
    • Because the offence is compoundable only with the court’s permission, any settlement has to be placed before the court.

    Exam angle

    • 509 IPC to 79 BNS; punishment is simple imprisonment up to three years and fine (fine is mandatory, “and also with fine”).
    • New words: “in any form” after “exhibits any object”.
    • Compoundable by the woman, with the court’s permission (Table 2 of Section 359 BNSS).
    • Cognizable, bailable, triable by any Magistrate.

    Frequently asked questions

    What is the new section for 509 IPC?

    Section 509 IPC is now Section 79 of the BNS.

    Is Section 79 BNS bailable?

    Yes. It is bailable and cognizable, and triable by any Magistrate.

    Can a Section 79 BNS case be compromised?

    Yes, but only by the woman concerned and with the permission of the court where the case is pending.

    What is the punishment under Section 79 BNS?

    Simple imprisonment up to three years and fine.

    Does Section 79 BNS apply to obscene messages on WhatsApp?

    It can, if the message was sent with intent to insult the woman’s modesty. The IT Act may also apply on the same facts.

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    Quick quiz

    Q1. Section 509 IPC is now:

    1. Section 74 BNS
    2. Section 78 BNS
    3. Section 352 BNS
    4. Section 79 BNS
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Section 79 BNS covers word, gesture or act intended to insult the modesty of a woman.

    Q2. The punishment under Section 79 BNS is:

    1. Simple imprisonment up to 3 years and fine
    2. Rigorous imprisonment 1 to 5 years
    3. Imprisonment up to 2 years or fine
    4. Fine only
    Show answer

    Answer: A. The section prescribes simple imprisonment up to three years and also fine.

    Q3. Which phrase was added in Section 79 BNS compared with Section 509 IPC?

    1. “by any electronic means”
    2. “in any form”
    3. “in any manner”
    4. “in public view”
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Section 79 now reads “exhibits any object in any form”.

    Q4. Section 79 BNS is compoundable:

    1. Without the court’s permission
    2. Not at all
    3. With the court’s permission, by the woman concerned
    4. Only by the State
    Show answer

    Answer: C. It appears in Table 2 of Section 359 BNSS, which requires the court’s permission.

    Q5. Section 79 BNS is:

    1. Cognizable and bailable
    2. Non-cognizable and bailable
    3. Cognizable and non-bailable
    4. Triable only by a Court of Session
    Show answer

    Answer: A. It is cognizable, bailable and triable by any Magistrate.

    Sources

    • Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, Section 79 (and Sections 74, 75, 78, 296)
    • Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, Sections 173 and 359, and First Schedule
    • Rupan Deol Bajaj v. Kanwar Pal Singh Gill (Supreme Court, 1995)
    • National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal (cybercrime.gov.in)

    This page is for education and general information, not legal advice for a specific case.

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  • Section 504 IPC in BNS: Section 352 Intentional Insult, Bail

    Section 504 IPC in BNS: Section 352 Intentional Insult, Bail

    Section 504 IPC is now Section 352 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS). Intentionally insulting a person, and thereby provoking him, intending or knowing that the provocation is likely to make him break the public peace or commit another offence, is punishable with imprisonment up to two years, or fine, or both. The offence is non-cognizable, bailable and compoundable by the person insulted.

    PointDetails
    Old sectionSection 504 IPC
    New sectionSection 352 BNS
    OffenceIntentional insult with intent to provoke breach of peace
    PunishmentImprisonment of either description up to 2 years, or fine, or both
    CognizableNo (non-cognizable)
    BailableYes
    CompoundableYes, by the person insulted, without the court’s permission (Section 359 BNSS, Table 1)
    Triable byAny Magistrate

    What Section 352 BNS says

    The section opens with the words “Whoever intentionally insults in any manner, and thereby gives provocation to any person”. The insult must be one that the accused intends, or knows is likely, to make the other person break the public peace or commit some other offence.

    Ingredients

    1. Intentional insult: the accused deliberately insulted the complainant. An accidental or careless remark is not enough.
    2. Provocation: the insult was of a kind that gives provocation to the person insulted.
    3. Intent or knowledge: the accused intended, or knew it was likely, that the provocation would cause the person to break the public peace or commit another offence.

    The law does not require that the peace was actually broken. What matters is the nature of the insult and the accused’s state of mind.

    What changed from the IPC

    The punishment and classification are the same as under Section 504 IPC. The only textual change is the addition of the words “in any manner” after “intentionally insults”. This confirms that the insult can be by words, conduct, writing or electronic means.

    Do not confuse the number with the old Section 352 IPC, which punished assault or criminal force otherwise than on grave provocation. That offence is now Section 131 BNS. Section 352 BNS is a completely different offence.

    Section 352 and criminal intimidation

    FIRs under the IPC often read “Sections 504 and 506”. Under the BNS, the equivalent pair is Sections 352 and 351. Section 351 BNS is criminal intimidation (old 503 and 506 IPC). Section 353 BNS covers statements conducing to public mischief (old 505 IPC).

    Important case law

    • Fiona Shrikhande v. State of Maharashtra (2013): the Supreme Court set out the three ingredients of Section 504 IPC and said that merely abusing a person is not by itself enough for conviction. It also held that the complaint need not reproduce the exact words used; the court reads the complaint as a whole, with its background and circumstances.
    • B.V. Ram Kumar v. State of Telangana (2025 INSC 194): a senior’s reprimand of a subordinate at the workplace, concerning discipline and duties, was held not to be an intentional insult with intent to provoke. The insult must be of such a degree that a person would be provoked to break the peace or commit an offence. The proceedings were quashed.

    Common confusions

    • Abuse alone is not Section 352: rude or abusive words, without the intent or knowledge about breach of peace, do not complete the offence.
    • Non-cognizable: the police cannot investigate without a Magistrate’s order. Usually the complaint is entered in the non-cognizable register, or a complaint is filed directly before the Magistrate.
    • Insult must be to the complainant: the provocation must be given to the person insulted, not to a bystander.
    • Section 352 BNS vs Section 79 BNS: where the insult is aimed at a woman’s modesty, Section 79 applies, which is cognizable and carries up to three years.

    Practical guidance for the public

    • As the offence is non-cognizable, the police will usually record the information and refer the complainant to the Magistrate (Section 174 BNSS). The complainant can also file a private complaint before the Judicial Magistrate.
    • Note the date, place, exact words if possible, and names of witnesses. Keep recordings or messages.
    • If the same incident involves threats, hurt or other cognizable offences, those are investigated by the police in the normal way.
    • The offence can be settled by the person insulted without the court’s permission, which often ends neighbourhood or family disputes.

    Exam angle

    • 504 IPC to 352 BNS; 503/506 IPC to 351 BNS; 505 IPC to 353 BNS.
    • Old 352 IPC (assault) is now 131 BNS; a favourite trap question.
    • New words: “in any manner”.
    • Non-cognizable, bailable, compoundable without permission, triable by any Magistrate; punishment up to two years, or fine, or both.

    Frequently asked questions

    What is the new section for 504 IPC?

    Section 504 IPC is now Section 352 of the BNS.

    Is Section 352 BNS bailable?

    Yes. It is bailable and non-cognizable.

    What is the new section for 504 and 506 IPC?

    Section 504 IPC is Section 352 BNS, and Section 506 IPC (criminal intimidation) is Section 351 BNS.

    Can a Section 352 BNS case be compromised?

    Yes. The person insulted can compound it without the court’s permission.

    Is abusing someone an offence under Section 352 BNS?

    Only if the abuse is an intentional insult meant, or known to be likely, to provoke breach of the peace or another offence. Mere abuse is not enough.

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    Quick quiz

    Q1. Section 504 IPC corresponds to:

    1. Section 351 BNS
    2. Section 352 BNS
    3. Section 353 BNS
    4. Section 131 BNS
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Section 352 BNS is intentional insult with intent to provoke breach of peace.

    Q2. The maximum punishment under Section 352 BNS is:

    1. One year
    2. Three years
    3. Two years, or fine, or both
    4. Seven years
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Imprisonment up to two years, or fine, or both.

    Q3. Section 352 BNS is:

    1. Non-cognizable and bailable
    2. Cognizable and bailable
    3. Cognizable and non-bailable
    4. Non-compoundable
    Show answer

    Answer: A. It is non-cognizable, bailable and compoundable by the person insulted.

    Q4. The old Section 352 IPC (assault otherwise than on grave provocation) is now:

    1. Section 352 BNS
    2. Section 115 BNS
    3. Section 351 BNS
    4. Section 131 BNS
    Show answer

    Answer: D. It is now Section 131 BNS; Section 352 BNS is a different offence.

    Q5. In B.V. Ram Kumar v. State of Telangana (2025), the Supreme Court held that:

    1. Every abuse is an offence under Section 504 IPC
    2. A senior’s workplace admonition on discipline is not intentional insult with intent to provoke
    3. Section 504 IPC is unconstitutional
    4. Section 504 IPC is cognizable
    Show answer

    Answer: B. The Court quashed the case, holding that workplace admonition about duties did not meet the threshold of the offence.

    Sources

    • Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, Sections 351, 352 and 353
    • Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, Sections 174 and 359, and First Schedule
    • Fiona Shrikhande v. State of Maharashtra (Supreme Court, 2013)
    • B.V. Ram Kumar v. State of Telangana, 2025 INSC 194

    This page is for education and general information, not legal advice for a specific case.

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  • IPC धारा 499/500 अब BNS धारा 356: मानहानि, सज़ा और केस

    IPC धारा 499/500 अब BNS धारा 356: मानहानि, सज़ा और केस

    IPC की धारा 499 (मानहानि की परिभाषा) और धारा 500 (सज़ा) अब भारतीय न्याय संहिता, 2023 (BNS) की एक ही धारा 356 में हैं। परिभाषा 356(1) में और सज़ा 356(2) में है: दो वर्ष तक का साधारण कारावास, या जुर्माना, या दोनों, या सामुदायिक सेवा। सामुदायिक सेवा का विकल्प BNS में नया जोड़ा गया है।

    बिंदुविवरण
    पुरानी धाराएँIPC 499 (परिभाषा), 500 (सज़ा), 501 (मुद्रण), 502 (बिक्री)
    नई धाराBNS 356(1) परिभाषा, 356(2) सज़ा, 356(3) मुद्रण, 356(4) बिक्री
    सज़ा, 356(2)2 वर्ष तक साधारण कारावास, या जुर्माना, या दोनों, या सामुदायिक सेवा
    सज़ा, 356(3) और (4)2 वर्ष तक साधारण कारावास, या जुर्माना, या दोनों
    संज्ञेय (Cognizable)नहीं, असंज्ञेय
    जमानती (Bailable)हाँ
    शमनीय (Compoundable)हाँ, मानहानि वाला व्यक्ति कर सकता है (राष्ट्रपति, राज्यपाल, मंत्री आदि के मामले में अदालत की अनुमति से)
    विचारण न्यायालयप्रथम श्रेणी मजिस्ट्रेट; लोक अभियोजक की शिकायत पर उच्च पदाधिकारियों के मामले में सत्र न्यायालय
    शिकायतकेवल पीड़ित व्यक्ति की शिकायत पर संज्ञान (BNSS धारा 222)

    मानहानि क्या है: धारा 356(1)

    जब कोई व्यक्ति बोले गए या पढ़े जाने के आशय से लिखे शब्दों, संकेतों या दृश्य चित्रण द्वारा किसी व्यक्ति के बारे में कोई लांछन (imputation) लगाता या प्रकाशित करता है, और उसका आशय उसकी प्रतिष्ठा को हानि पहुँचाना हो, या वह जानता हो कि इससे प्रतिष्ठा को हानि होगी, तो यह मानहानि है।

    मुख्य तत्व तीन हैं: लांछन, उसका प्रकाशन यानी किसी तीसरे व्यक्ति तक पहुँचना, और प्रतिष्ठा को हानि पहुँचाने का आशय या ज्ञान। व्याख्याओं के अनुसार मृत व्यक्ति के बारे में लांछन भी मानहानि हो सकता है, यदि उससे परिवार की भावनाएँ आहत हों, और कंपनी या व्यक्तियों के समूह की भी मानहानि हो सकती है।

    दस अपवाद

    धारा 356(1) में दस अपवाद हैं, जो IPC 499 जैसे ही हैं। प्रमुख हैं: लोकहित में कहा गया सत्य, लोक सेवक के सार्वजनिक आचरण पर सद्भावपूर्ण राय, न्यायालय की कार्यवाही की सच्ची रिपोर्ट, किसी सार्वजनिक प्रदर्शन या पुस्तक की सद्भावपूर्ण समीक्षा, वैध अधिकारी के समक्ष सद्भावपूर्ण आरोप, और दूसरे की भलाई के लिए दी गई सद्भावपूर्ण चेतावनी।

    पुराने कानून से क्या बदला

    • चार धाराएँ एक में: IPC 499 से 502 अब BNS 356 की चार उपधाराओं में हैं।
    • सामुदायिक सेवा: 356(2) में सज़ा के रूप में सामुदायिक सेवा (community service) नया विकल्प है। BNS में यह विकल्प केवल छह अपराधों में दिया गया है और मानहानि उनमें से एक है। सामुदायिक सेवा का अर्थ BNSS धारा 23 के स्पष्टीकरण में दिया गया है: अदालत के आदेश पर समाज के लाभ के लिए किया जाने वाला अवैतनिक कार्य।
    • मुद्रण और बिक्री: 356(3) और 356(4) में सामुदायिक सेवा का विकल्प नहीं है।
    • प्रक्रिया: शिकायत की व्यवस्था पहले CrPC धारा 199 में थी, अब BNSS धारा 222 में है। सिद्धांत वही है।

    शिकायत की प्रक्रिया: BNSS धारा 222

    • अदालत मानहानि का संज्ञान केवल पीड़ित व्यक्ति की शिकायत पर लेती है। पुलिस सीधे FIR दर्ज करके जांच नहीं करती, क्योंकि अपराध असंज्ञेय है।
    • पीड़ित बालक हो, मानसिक रूप से अक्षम हो या बीमारी के कारण शिकायत न कर सके, तो अदालत की अनुमति से कोई अन्य व्यक्ति उसकी ओर से शिकायत कर सकता है।
    • राष्ट्रपति, उपराष्ट्रपति, राज्यपाल, केंद्रशासित प्रदेश के प्रशासक, मंत्री या अन्य लोक सेवक की उनके सार्वजनिक कार्यों से जुड़ी मानहानि में लोक अभियोजक पूर्व स्वीकृति लेकर सीधे सत्र न्यायालय में लिखित शिकायत कर सकता है। यह शिकायत अपराध से छह महीने के भीतर होनी चाहिए।
    • सामान्य मामलों में शिकायत प्रथम श्रेणी मजिस्ट्रेट के समक्ष दायर होती है।

    महत्वपूर्ण केस लॉ

    • सुब्रमण्यम स्वामी बनाम भारत संघ ((2016) 7 SCC 221): सुप्रीम कोर्ट ने आपराधिक मानहानि (IPC 499, 500 और CrPC 199) की संवैधानिकता बरकरार रखी। अदालत ने कहा कि प्रतिष्ठा का अधिकार अनुच्छेद 21 का हिस्सा है और अनुच्छेद 19(2) में “defamation” युक्तियुक्त प्रतिबंध के रूप में स्पष्ट लिखा है।
    • 2025 की टिप्पणी: सितंबर 2025 में The Wire से जुड़ी एक याचिका की सुनवाई में न्यायमूर्ति एम.एम. सुंदरेश ने मौखिक टिप्पणी की कि आपराधिक मानहानि को अपराध की श्रेणी से हटाने का समय आ गया है। यह केवल मौखिक टिप्पणी थी, कानून में कोई बदलाव नहीं हुआ है।

    आम भ्रम

    आपराधिक और सिविल मानहानि में अंतर

    आपराधिक मानहानि BNS 356 में मजिस्ट्रेट के समक्ष शिकायत से चलती है और उसमें सज़ा होती है। सिविल मानहानि अपकृत्य (tort) है, जिसमें सिविल अदालत में हर्जाने (damages) का दावा होता है। दोनों एक साथ भी चल सकते हैं।

    क्या सच बोलना हमेशा बचाव है

    नहीं। पहले अपवाद के अनुसार सत्य तभी बचाव है जब उसका प्रकाशन लोकहित में हो। निजी जीवन का सच भी बिना लोकहित के कहा जाए तो बचाव नहीं बनता।

    सोशल मीडिया पोस्ट

    फेसबुक, X, व्हाट्सऐप समूह या यूट्यूब पर किया गया लांछन भी प्रकाशन है, क्योंकि वह तीसरे व्यक्तियों तक पहुँचता है। कानून माध्यम पर नहीं, लांछन और उसके प्रभाव पर ध्यान देता है।

    आम लोगों के लिए व्यावहारिक जानकारी

    • सबूत सुरक्षित करें: पोस्ट का स्क्रीनशॉट, URL, तारीख और समय, अख़बार की प्रति, या रिकॉर्डिंग। इलेक्ट्रॉनिक साक्ष्य के लिए BSA धारा 63 का प्रमाणपत्र ज़रूरी होता है।
    • अक्सर पहले कानूनी नोटिस भेजकर माफ़ी और पोस्ट हटाने की मांग की जाती है। यह अनिवार्य नहीं, पर व्यावहारिक रूप से उपयोगी है।
    • शिकायत क्षेत्राधिकार वाले प्रथम श्रेणी मजिस्ट्रेट के समक्ष दायर करें। मजिस्ट्रेट शिकायतकर्ता और गवाहों का बयान लेकर तय करता है कि अभियुक्त को समन भेजा जाए या नहीं।
    • अपराध असंज्ञेय और जमानती है, इसलिए गिरफ्तारी सामान्यतः नहीं होती और अभियुक्त को जमानत अधिकार के रूप में मिलती है।

    परीक्षा की दृष्टि से (Exam angle)

    • IPC 499, 500, 501, 502 = BNS 356(1), (2), (3), (4)।
    • सामुदायिक सेवा वाले छह BNS अपराधों में 356(2) शामिल है। अन्य: 202, 209, 226, 303(2) का परंतुक और 355।
    • CrPC 199 = BNSS 222। लोक अभियोजक की शिकायत की समय सीमा छह महीने।
    • सुब्रमण्यम स्वामी (2016) में आपराधिक मानहानि संवैधानिक घोषित।

    अक्सर पूछे जाने वाले प्रश्न (Frequently asked questions)

    धारा 499 और 500 नई धारा क्या है?

    दोनों अब BNS की धारा 356 में हैं। परिभाषा 356(1) में और सज़ा 356(2) में।

    मानहानि में कितनी सज़ा होती है?

    दो वर्ष तक का साधारण कारावास, या जुर्माना, या दोनों, या सामुदायिक सेवा।

    क्या मानहानि के लिए थाने में FIR हो सकती है?

    सामान्यतः नहीं। मानहानि असंज्ञेय है और BNSS धारा 222 के तहत अदालत केवल पीड़ित की शिकायत पर संज्ञान लेती है, इसलिए शिकायत सीधे मजिस्ट्रेट के समक्ष दायर होती है।

    क्या मानहानि केस में समझौता हो सकता है?

    हाँ। जिसकी मानहानि हुई है वह अपराध का शमन कर सकता है। उच्च पदाधिकारियों वाले मामलों में अदालत की अनुमति आवश्यक है।

    सोशल मीडिया पर बदनामी पर कौन सी धारा लगती है?

    BNS धारा 356 लागू होती है। अश्लील या धमकी भरी सामग्री हो तो सूचना प्रौद्योगिकी अधिनियम और BNS की अन्य धाराएँ भी लग सकती हैं।

    परीक्षा की तैयारी कर रहे हैं? CLAT, AIBE और न्यायिक सेवा परीक्षाओं के लिए Lexfolio के मॉक टेस्ट और नोट्स में हर उत्तर की व्याख्या दी गई है।

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    क्विक क्विज़ (Quick quiz)

    Q1. IPC धारा 500 (मानहानि की सज़ा) अब BNS में कहाँ है?

    1. धारा 356(1)
    2. धारा 356(3)
    3. धारा 356(2)
    4. धारा 351
    उत्तर देखें

    उत्तर: C. सज़ा 356(2) में है। 356(1) परिभाषा देती है और 356(3) मुद्रण से संबंधित है।

    Q2. मानहानि की सज़ा में BNS ने कौन सा नया विकल्प जोड़ा?

    1. सामुदायिक सेवा
    2. न्यूनतम एक वर्ष का कारावास
    3. कठोर कारावास
    4. संपत्ति की कुर्की
    उत्तर देखें

    उत्तर: A. 356(2) में सामुदायिक सेवा नया विकल्प है, जो IPC 500 में नहीं था।

    Q3. मानहानि की शिकायत संबंधी प्रावधान BNSS की किस धारा में है?

    1. धारा 173
    2. धारा 222
    3. धारा 359
    4. धारा 482
    उत्तर देखें

    उत्तर: B. BNSS धारा 222, जो CrPC धारा 199 का स्थान लेती है।

    Q4. किस केस में आपराधिक मानहानि की संवैधानिकता बरकरार रखी गई?

    1. श्रेया सिंघल बनाम भारत संघ
    2. के.एस. पुट्टस्वामी बनाम भारत संघ
    3. आर. राजगोपाल बनाम तमिलनाडु राज्य
    4. सुब्रमण्यम स्वामी बनाम भारत संघ
    उत्तर देखें

    उत्तर: D. सुब्रमण्यम स्वामी (2016) 7 SCC 221 में आपराधिक मानहानि को संवैधानिक माना गया।

    Q5. BNS धारा 356(2) के अपराध के बारे में कौन सा कथन सही है?

    1. संज्ञेय और अजमानती
    2. असंज्ञेय, जमानती और शमनीय
    3. अशमनीय
    4. केवल सत्र न्यायालय द्वारा विचारणीय
    उत्तर देखें

    उत्तर: B. मानहानि असंज्ञेय और जमानती है, और BNSS धारा 359 के अंतर्गत मानहानि वाला व्यक्ति इसका शमन कर सकता है।

    स्रोत (Sources)

    • भारतीय न्याय संहिता, 2023, धारा 356 (India Code)
    • भारतीय नागरिक सुरक्षा संहिता, 2023, धारा 222, 359 और प्रथम अनुसूची
    • सुब्रमण्यम स्वामी बनाम भारत संघ, (2016) 7 SCC 221
    • भारत का संविधान, अनुच्छेद 19(2) और 21

    यह पृष्ठ शिक्षा और सामान्य जानकारी के लिए है, किसी विशेष मामले के लिए कानूनी सलाह नहीं।

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  • Section 499, 500 IPC in BNS: Section 356 Defamation, Punishment

    Section 499, 500 IPC in BNS: Section 356 Defamation, Punishment

    Sections 499 and 500 IPC are now Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS). Section 356(1) defines defamation and Section 356(2) punishes it with simple imprisonment up to two years, or fine, or both, or community service. Community service is the new option introduced by the BNS.

    PointDetails
    Old sections499 (definition), 500 (punishment), 501 (printing), 502 (sale) IPC
    New section356(1), 356(2), 356(3), 356(4) BNS
    OffenceDefamation
    Punishment, 356(2)Simple imprisonment up to 2 years, or fine, or both, or community service
    Punishment, 356(3) and (4)Simple imprisonment up to 2 years, or fine, or both
    CognizableNo (non-cognizable)
    BailableYes
    CompoundableYes, by the person defamed (with the court’s permission where the complaint is filed by the Public Prosecutor for high constitutional functionaries)
    Triable byMagistrate of the first class; Court of Session where the complaint is by the Public Prosecutor under Section 222(2) BNSS

    What Section 356 BNS says

    Under Section 356(1), a person commits defamation when, by spoken or written words, signs or visible representations, he makes or publishes an imputation about another person, intending to harm that person’s reputation, or knowing or having reason to believe that it will harm it.

    Ingredients

    1. An imputation about a person (including a company, association or group).
    2. It is made or published, that is, communicated to someone other than the person defamed.
    3. It is made with intent to harm, or knowledge or reason to believe it will harm, that person’s reputation.

    The explanations in brief

    • An imputation about a dead person can be defamation if it would have harmed him if living and is meant to hurt his family.
    • A company, association or collection of persons can be defamed.
    • An imputation made ironically or as an alternative can be defamatory.
    • Harm to reputation means lowering the person’s moral or intellectual character, standing in caste or calling, or credit, in the estimation of others.

    The ten exceptions

    1. Truth of an imputation, if publication is for the public good.
    2. Good faith opinion on the public conduct of a public servant.
    3. Good faith opinion on any person’s conduct touching a public question.
    4. Substantially true reports of court proceedings.
    5. Good faith opinion on the merits of a decided case, or the conduct of parties, witnesses or agents in it.
    6. Good faith opinion on a work submitted to public judgment, such as a book or performance.
    7. Censure in good faith by a person with lawful authority over another.
    8. Accusation in good faith to a person with lawful authority, such as a complaint to the police.
    9. Imputation in good faith to protect one’s own or another’s interest, or for the public good.
    10. Caution given in good faith for the good of the person cautioned or the public.

    Note that truth alone is not a defence under Exception 1. The publication must also be for the public good.

    What changed from the IPC

    • Four IPC sections (499 to 502) are merged into one section with four sub-sections.
    • Community service is now a punishment option under Section 356(2). Section 4(f) BNS lists community service as a form of punishment, but the BNS does not lay down how much or what kind of service a court should order.
    • The definition, explanations and ten exceptions remain substantially the same.

    Procedure under the BNSS

    • Who can complain: Section 222 BNSS (old 199 CrPC) allows a court to take cognizance only on a complaint by the person aggrieved. Others may complain on behalf of a child, a person of unsound mind, or a person who is sick or infirm, with the court’s leave.
    • High functionaries: for defamation of the President, Vice-President, a Governor, a Union territory Administrator, a Minister or a public servant in respect of public functions, the Public Prosecutor may file a written complaint directly in the Court of Session, with prior sanction, within six months of the offence.
    • Hearing before cognizance: under the first proviso to Section 223(1) BNSS, the Magistrate cannot take cognizance on a complaint without giving the accused an opportunity of being heard. This is a new safeguard and applies to defamation complaints.

    Important case law

    • Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India (2016): decided on 13 May 2016 by Justices Dipak Misra and P.C. Pant. The Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of Sections 499 and 500 IPC and Section 199 CrPC. It held that reputation is part of the right to life under Article 21, that criminal defamation is a reasonable restriction under Article 19(2), and that free speech must be balanced against the reputation of individuals. The reasoning carries over to Section 356 BNS, as the provision is substantially the same.

    Common confusions

    • Civil vs criminal defamation: a civil suit seeks damages; a criminal complaint under Section 356 seeks punishment. Both can be pursued on the same facts.
    • Police FIR: defamation is non-cognizable, and Section 222 BNSS requires a complaint by the aggrieved person. Ordinarily the remedy is a complaint before the Magistrate, not an FIR.
    • Section 356 vs Section 352: defamation is about harm to reputation in the eyes of others; Section 352 is about an insult meant to provoke breach of peace.

    Practical guidance for the public

    • Collect proof of the publication: screenshots with URL and date, copies of the newspaper or post, and witnesses who heard or read the statement.
    • A legal notice is commonly sent first, though it is not legally required for a criminal complaint.
    • File the complaint before the Judicial Magistrate of the first class with jurisdiction. The court will hear the accused before taking cognizance, then record evidence and decide whether to summon.
    • The case can be settled at any stage by the person defamed (with court permission in Public Prosecutor cases).

    Exam angle

    • 499 to 356(1), 500 to 356(2), 501 to 356(3), 502 to 356(4).
    • Community service: available under 356(2) only, not 356(3) or (4).
    • Ten exceptions; Exception 1 requires truth plus public good.
    • Subramanian Swamy (2016): criminal defamation upheld; reputation is part of Article 21.
    • Procedure: Section 222 BNSS (old 199 CrPC) and the hearing proviso in Section 223 BNSS.

    Frequently asked questions

    What is the new section for 499 and 500 IPC?

    Both are now in Section 356 BNS: the definition in 356(1) and the punishment in 356(2).

    What is the punishment for defamation under BNS?

    Simple imprisonment up to two years, or fine, or both, or community service.

    Is defamation bailable under BNS?

    Yes. It is bailable and non-cognizable.

    Can police register an FIR for defamation?

    Ordinarily no. It is non-cognizable and cognizance is taken on a complaint by the person aggrieved under Section 222 BNSS.

    Is truth a defence to defamation?

    Only if the imputation is true and its publication is for the public good (Exception 1).

    Is criminal defamation constitutional in India?

    Yes. The Supreme Court upheld it in Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India (2016).

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    Quick quiz

    Q1. Section 500 IPC corresponds to:

    1. Section 356(1) BNS
    2. Section 356(3) BNS
    3. Section 356(2) BNS
    4. Section 352 BNS
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Section 356(2) BNS prescribes the punishment for defamation.

    Q2. Which punishment for defamation is new in the BNS?

    1. Community service
    2. Rigorous imprisonment
    3. Forfeiture of property
    4. Fine
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Section 356(2) adds community service as an alternative punishment.

    Q3. How many exceptions does the defamation provision contain?

    1. Six
    2. Eight
    3. Twelve
    4. Ten
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Section 356(1) carries ten exceptions, the same as Section 499 IPC.

    Q4. Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India (2016) held that:

    1. Criminal defamation is unconstitutional
    2. Criminal defamation is a reasonable restriction and reputation is part of Article 21
    3. Only civil defamation is valid
    4. Section 199 CrPC is void
    Show answer

    Answer: B. The Court upheld Sections 499 and 500 IPC and Section 199 CrPC.

    Q5. Which BNSS provision corresponds to Section 199 CrPC on prosecution for defamation?

    1. Section 173
    2. Section 359
    3. Section 193
    4. Section 222
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Section 222 BNSS deals with prosecution for defamation.

    Sources

    • Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, Sections 4 and 356
    • Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, Sections 222, 223 and 359, and First Schedule
    • Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India (Supreme Court, 13 May 2016)
    • Supreme Court Observer, case summary of Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India

    This page is for education and general information, not legal advice for a specific case.

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  • Section 482 CrPC in BNSS: Section 528 Quashing of FIR

    Section 482 CrPC in BNSS: Section 528 Quashing of FIR

    Section 482 of the CrPC (saving of inherent powers of the High Court) is now Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS), from 1 July 2024. The wording is the same, so a High Court can still quash an FIR, complaint or criminal proceeding to prevent abuse of the process of court or to secure the ends of justice. All the case law under Section 482, including Bhajan Lal, continues to apply.

    PointPosition
    Old sectionSection 482, CrPC, 1973
    New sectionSection 528, BNSS, 2023
    SubjectSaving of inherent powers of the High Court
    Who can applyAn accused, a complainant or any aggrieved party in a criminal proceeding
    Which courtHigh Court only (not the Sessions Court or a Magistrate)
    Three purposesTo give effect to an order under the BNSS; to prevent abuse of the process of any court; otherwise to secure the ends of justice
    Time limitNo statutory limitation period; unexplained delay can weigh against the petitioner
    Key changeNone in substance; only renumbering (CrPC replaced by “this Sanhita”)

    What Section 528 BNSS says

    The section is a single sentence. It opens with “Nothing in this Sanhita shall be deemed to limit or affect the inherent powers of the High Court” and then names three purposes for which those powers may be used. It does not create a new power. It only recognises that a High Court, as a superior court, has always had inherent authority to do real justice where the written procedure is silent or is being misused.

    In practice the section is used mostly for quashing. Typical petitions ask the High Court to quash an FIR, a charge-sheet, a summoning order, or the entire criminal case. It is also used to set aside orders that cause injustice where no other remedy exists, and to give effect to compromises in suitable cases.

    What changed from Section 482 CrPC

    Nothing of substance. The only textual change is that “this Code” has become “this Sanhita”. The section numbering changed because the BNSS reorganised the chapters. Petitions filed on or after 1 July 2024 are filed under Section 528 BNSS; petitions pending on that date continue under Section 482 CrPC because of the saving clause in Section 531 BNSS.

    Students should note one trap: Section 482 still exists in the BNSS, but it now deals with anticipatory bail (old Section 438 CrPC).

    Important case law

    State of Haryana v. Bhajan Lal (1992)

    Decided on 21 November 1990 and reported in 1992 Supp (1) SCC 335, this is the leading case on quashing. The Supreme Court gave seven illustrative categories where an FIR or proceeding may be quashed:

    1. The allegations, even if taken at face value and accepted in full, do not make out any offence.
    2. The allegations and materials do not disclose a cognizable offence justifying police investigation without a Magistrate’s order.
    3. The uncontroverted allegations and the evidence collected do not disclose any offence.
    4. The allegations make out only a non-cognizable offence, and the police investigated without a Magistrate’s order.
    5. The allegations are so absurd or inherently improbable that no prudent person could find sufficient ground to proceed.
    6. There is an express legal bar against starting or continuing the proceedings, or the statute gives a specific remedy.
    7. The proceeding is manifestly attended with mala fides or was instituted maliciously to wreak vengeance.

    The Court added a caution that the power must be exercised sparingly and with circumspection. The list is illustrative, not exhaustive.

    Gian Singh v. State of Punjab (2012)

    A three-judge bench held that the High Court can quash even non-compoundable offences on the basis of a genuine settlement where the dispute is essentially private, such as commercial, matrimonial or family disputes. Serious offences such as murder, rape and dacoity, and offences affecting society at large, are not to be quashed on compromise.

    Common confusions

    • Section 528 vs Article 226: Quashing can be sought under either. Many High Courts hear FIR-quashing under Section 528 BNSS, while challenges involving fundamental rights or public law issues may go under Article 226. The tests applied are largely the same.
    • Section 528 vs revision: Where the BNSS gives a specific remedy (appeal or revision), the High Court generally expects that remedy to be used first. Inherent power fills gaps; it does not replace express provisions.
    • Sessions Court: No court other than the High Court has inherent power under this section.

    Practical guide for the public

    A petition under Section 528 is filed before the High Court that has territorial jurisdiction over the police station or court where the case is pending. Common situations are a false FIR arising from a civil or money dispute, a matrimonial case after settlement, or a summoning order passed without any material.

    Documents generally needed: certified or true copy of the FIR, charge-sheet or complaint, the impugned order (such as the summoning order), any settlement deed and affidavits of both parties (for compromise cases), documents that show the case is civil or malicious, and an affidavit supporting the petition. In compromise cases, the High Court often requires the parties to appear or file affidavits so it can confirm the settlement is voluntary.

    Filing a quashing petition does not by itself stop the investigation or trial. Interim protection depends on a specific order of the High Court.

    Exam angle

    • Section 482 CrPC = Section 528 BNSS. Section 482 BNSS = anticipatory bail.
    • Only the High Court has this power; the three purposes are frequently asked word by word.
    • Bhajan Lal: seven categories; decided in 1990, reported in 1992 Supp (1) SCC 335.
    • Gian Singh (2012): quashing on compromise is possible for private disputes, not for heinous or society-wide offences.

    Frequently asked questions

    What is the new section for 482 CrPC under BNSS?

    Section 528 of the BNSS, 2023 now contains the High Court’s inherent powers, with the same wording as Section 482 CrPC.

    Can an FIR be quashed under Section 528 BNSS?

    Yes. The High Court can quash an FIR if the case falls within principles like those in Bhajan Lal, such as no offence being disclosed or the case being malicious.

    Can a criminal case be quashed after compromise?

    Yes, for disputes that are essentially private, as held in Gian Singh (2012). Heinous offences and offences against society are not quashed merely because the parties have settled.

    Is there a time limit for filing a Section 528 petition?

    No limitation period is fixed by the statute, but long unexplained delay can lead the High Court to refuse relief.

    Can the Sessions Court quash an FIR?

    No. Inherent power under Section 528 BNSS belongs only to the High Court.

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    Quick quiz

    Q1. Section 482 CrPC corresponds to which section of the BNSS?

    1. Section 482
    2. Section 530
    3. Section 531
    4. Section 528
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Section 528 BNSS saves the inherent powers of the High Court. Section 482 BNSS is anticipatory bail.

    Q2. Which of the following is NOT one of the three purposes named in Section 528 BNSS?

    1. To give effect to an order under the Sanhita
    2. To prevent abuse of the process of any court
    3. To grant compensation to the victim
    4. To secure the ends of justice
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Victim compensation is dealt with elsewhere in the BNSS, not under Section 528.

    Q3. The seven categories for quashing were laid down in:

    1. State of Haryana v. Bhajan Lal
    2. Lalita Kumari v. Govt. of U.P.
    3. Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar
    4. Sushila Aggarwal v. State
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Bhajan Lal, reported in 1992 Supp (1) SCC 335, gave the seven illustrative categories.

    Q4. Gian Singh v. State of Punjab (2012) is mainly known for:

    1. Barring all quashing at the investigation stage
    2. Allowing quashing of non-compoundable offences on genuine settlement in private disputes
    3. Holding that only the Sessions Court can quash on compromise
    4. Fixing a 90-day limit for quashing petitions
    Show answer

    Answer: B. It allowed quashing on settlement for essentially private disputes, but not for heinous or society-wide offences.

    Q5. Which court can exercise power under Section 528 BNSS?

    1. Chief Judicial Magistrate
    2. Court of Session
    3. High Court
    4. Any criminal court
    Show answer

    Answer: C. The section saves only the inherent powers of the High Court.

    Sources

    • Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023: Sections 528 and 531
    • Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973: Section 482
    • State of Haryana v. Bhajan Lal, 1992 Supp (1) SCC 335
    • Gian Singh v. State of Punjab, Supreme Court, 2012

    This page is for education and general information, not legal advice for a specific case.

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  • CrPC धारा 438 अब BNSS धारा 482: अग्रिम जमानत क्या है, कैसे लें

    CrPC धारा 438 अब BNSS धारा 482: अग्रिम जमानत क्या है, कैसे लें

    दंड प्रक्रिया संहिता (CrPC) की धारा 438 (अग्रिम जमानत) अब भारतीय नागरिक सुरक्षा संहिता, 2023 (BNSS) की धारा 482 है, जो 1 जुलाई 2024 से लागू है। अजमानती अपराध में गिरफ्तारी की आशंका होने पर व्यक्ति उच्च न्यायालय या सत्र न्यायालय से यह निर्देश मांग सकता है कि गिरफ्तारी होने पर उसे जमानत पर छोड़ा जाए। नई धारा छोटी है: उसमें पुराने विचारणीय कारक, लोक अभियोजक को अनिवार्य नोटिस और UP का पुराना प्रतिबंध नहीं है।

    बिंदुविवरण
    पुरानी धाराCrPC धारा 438
    नई धाराBNSS धारा 482(1) से 482(4)
    कब आवेदन करेंजब अजमानती अपराध में गिरफ्तारी की उचित आशंका हो
    किस अदालत मेंसत्र न्यायालय या उच्च न्यायालय (समवर्ती अधिकारिता)
    शर्तेंपूछताछ के लिए उपलब्ध रहना, गवाहों को प्रभावित न करना, बिना अनुमति देश न छोड़ना, धारा 480(3) की अन्य शर्तें
    जहाँ लागू नहींBNS धारा 65 (16 वर्ष से कम आयु की बालिका से बलात्कार) और 70(2) (18 वर्ष से कम आयु की बालिका से सामूहिक बलात्कार)
    समय सीमाकोई निश्चित समय सीमा नहीं; FIR से पहले भी आवेदन संभव

    धारा 482 क्या कहती है

    482(1): जिस व्यक्ति को यह विश्वास करने का कारण है कि उसे किसी अजमानती अपराध के आरोप में गिरफ्तार किया जा सकता है, वह उच्च न्यायालय या सत्र न्यायालय में आवेदन कर सकता है। अदालत उचित समझे तो निर्देश दे सकती है कि गिरफ्तारी की स्थिति में उसे “shall be released on bail”।

    482(2): अदालत तथ्यों के अनुसार शर्तें लगा सकती है, जैसे पुलिस पूछताछ के लिए उपलब्ध रहना, मामले से जुड़े व्यक्तियों को धमकी या प्रलोभन न देना, अदालत की पूर्व अनुमति के बिना भारत न छोड़ना, और BNSS धारा 480(3) में दी गई अन्य शर्तें।

    482(3): ऐसे व्यक्ति को थाने का भारसाधक अधिकारी बिना वारंट गिरफ्तार करे और वह जमानत देने को तैयार हो, तो उसे छोड़ना होगा। मजिस्ट्रेट वारंट जारी करना चाहे तो उसे अदालत के निर्देश के अनुरूप जमानती वारंट जारी करना होगा।

    482(4): यह धारा BNS धारा 65 या धारा 70(2) के आरोप पर गिरफ्तारी में लागू नहीं होती।

    CrPC 438 से क्या बदला

    • विचारणीय कारक हटे: धारा 438(1) में आरोप की प्रकृति, आवेदक का आपराधिक इतिहास, फरार होने की संभावना और आरोप का उद्देश्य जैसे कारक लिखे थे। BNSS 482 में ये नहीं हैं। अदालतें इन्हें अब भी न्यायिक सिद्धांत के रूप में देखती हैं, पर विवेक का दायरा बढ़ा है। छत्तीसगढ़ उच्च न्यायालय ने परिशा त्रिवेदी (2024) में यही कहा।
    • लोक अभियोजक को नोटिस और आवेदक की उपस्थिति: CrPC 438(1A) और (1B) में अंतरिम आदेश के बाद लोक अभियोजक को सात दिन का नोटिस और अंतिम सुनवाई पर आवेदक की उपस्थिति की व्यवस्था थी। BNSS 482 के पाठ में ये प्रावधान नहीं हैं, हालांकि व्यवहार में अदालतें अभियोजन को सुनती हैं।
    • प्रतिबंधित अपराध: CrPC 438(4) IPC की धारा 376(3), 376AB, 376DA और 376DB पर लागू नहीं होती थी। BNSS 482(4) में अब BNS 65 और 70(2) हैं।
    • उत्तर प्रदेश: UP संशोधन से जोड़ी गई धारा 438(6) मृत्युदंड या आजीवन कारावास वाले अपराधों में अग्रिम जमानत रोकती थी। BNSS में ऐसा कोई प्रावधान नहीं है।

    महत्वपूर्ण केस लॉ

    • गुरबख्श सिंह सिब्बिया बनाम पंजाब राज्य ((1980) 2 SCC 565): संविधान पीठ ने कहा कि अग्रिम जमानत की शक्ति पर अदालतें अपनी ओर से कठोर सीमाएँ नहीं जोड़ सकतीं। यह व्यक्तिगत स्वतंत्रता (अनुच्छेद 21) से जुड़ा प्रावधान है।
    • सुशीला अग्रवाल बनाम राज्य (दिल्ली) ((2020) 5 SCC 1): संविधान पीठ ने कहा कि अग्रिम जमानत को सामान्यतः किसी निश्चित अवधि तक सीमित नहीं किया जाना चाहिए, यह आरोप पत्र के बाद भी जारी रह सकती है, जब तक अदालत विशेष कारणों से अवधि तय न करे।
    • अब्दुल हमीद बनाम उत्तर प्रदेश राज्य (इलाहाबाद उच्च न्यायालय, जुलाई 2025): UP की पुरानी 438(6) की रोक BNSS 482 में नहीं आई, इसलिए 1 जुलाई 2024 के बाद दायर आवेदन में मृत्युदंड या आजीवन कारावास वाले अपराधों में भी अग्रिम जमानत पर विचार हो सकता है।
    • नज़ीर हुसैन बनाम असम राज्य (गौहाटी उच्च न्यायालय, 2025): 482(4) में “and” को “or” पढ़ा जाए, यानी BNS 65 या 70(2) में से किसी एक का आरोप होने पर भी अग्रिम जमानत का प्रावधान लागू नहीं होगा।

    सीधे उच्च न्यायालय जा सकते हैं या नहीं

    धारा 482 उच्च न्यायालय और सत्र न्यायालय दोनों को अधिकार देती है। व्यवहार में पहले सत्र न्यायालय जाना सामान्य परंपरा है। क्या उच्च न्यायालय सत्र न्यायालय को छोड़कर सीधे आवेदन सुन सकता है, यह प्रश्न मोहम्मद रसाल सी. बनाम केरल राज्य मामले में सुप्रीम कोर्ट की तीन न्यायाधीशों की पीठ के सामने है, जिसने अक्टूबर 2026 में निर्णय सुरक्षित रखा है। निर्णय आने तक अपने उच्च न्यायालय की प्रचलित प्रथा देखें।

    आम भ्रम

    अग्रिम जमानत और नियमित जमानत में अंतर

    नियमित जमानत (BNSS 480 और 483) गिरफ्तारी के बाद मांगी जाती है। अग्रिम जमानत गिरफ्तारी से पहले का आदेश है, जो गिरफ्तारी होने पर तुरंत लागू होता है।

    क्या जमानती अपराध में अग्रिम जमानत चाहिए

    नहीं। धारा 482 केवल अजमानती अपराधों के लिए है।

    आम लोगों के लिए व्यावहारिक जानकारी

    • दस्तावेज़: FIR की प्रति (हो तो), शिकायत या नोटिस की प्रति, पहचान पत्र, पता प्रमाण, और गिरफ्तारी की आशंका दिखाने वाले कागज़, जैसे पुलिस नोटिस या धमकी के संदेश।
    • आवेदन में: अपना पक्ष, आपराधिक इतिहास न होना और जांच में सहयोग की तत्परता स्पष्ट लिखें।
    • आदेश के बाद: शर्तों का पालन करें। पुलिस बुलाए तो उपस्थित हों, गवाहों से संपर्क न करें। उल्लंघन पर अग्रिम जमानत रद्द हो सकती है।

    परीक्षा की दृष्टि से (Exam angle)

    • CrPC 438 = BNSS 482। नियमित जमानत: CrPC 437 = BNSS 480, CrPC 439 = BNSS 483।
    • 482(4) के अपवाद: BNS 65 और 70(2)।
    • सिब्बिया (1980) और सुशीला अग्रवाल (2020) दोनों संविधान पीठ के निर्णय हैं।

    अक्सर पूछे जाने वाले प्रश्न (Frequently asked questions)

    अग्रिम जमानत की नई धारा क्या है?

    CrPC की धारा 438 अब BNSS की धारा 482 है।

    अग्रिम जमानत के लिए कहाँ आवेदन करें?

    सत्र न्यायालय या उच्च न्यायालय में। सामान्य प्रथा पहले सत्र न्यायालय जाने की है।

    किन अपराधों में अग्रिम जमानत नहीं मिलती?

    BNS धारा 65 (16 वर्ष से कम आयु की बालिका से बलात्कार) और धारा 70(2) (18 वर्ष से कम आयु की बालिका से सामूहिक बलात्कार) में धारा 482 लागू नहीं होती। कुछ विशेष कानूनों में भी अलग रोक है।

    अग्रिम जमानत कितने समय तक रहती है?

    सुशीला अग्रवाल (2020) के अनुसार सामान्यतः इसे समय सीमा में नहीं बाँधा जाता और यह मुकदमे के अंत तक चल सकती है, जब तक अदालत अलग आदेश न दे।

    क्या UP में हत्या के केस में अग्रिम जमानत मिल सकती है?

    इलाहाबाद उच्च न्यायालय ने 2025 में कहा कि BNSS में UP वाली पुरानी रोक नहीं है, इसलिए आवेदन पर गुण-दोष के आधार पर विचार हो सकता है। अनुदान अदालत के विवेक पर है।

    परीक्षा की तैयारी कर रहे हैं? CLAT, AIBE और न्यायिक सेवा परीक्षाओं के लिए Lexfolio के मॉक टेस्ट और नोट्स में हर उत्तर की व्याख्या दी गई है।

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    क्विक क्विज़ (Quick quiz)

    Q1. CrPC धारा 438 का BNSS में समकक्ष क्या है?

    1. धारा 480
    2. धारा 483
    3. धारा 528
    4. धारा 482
    उत्तर देखें

    उत्तर: D. अग्रिम जमानत अब BNSS धारा 482 में है। धारा 528 उच्च न्यायालय की अंतर्निहित शक्ति है।

    Q2. BNSS 482(4) किन BNS धाराओं के आरोप पर लागू नहीं होती?

    1. धारा 65 और 70(2)
    2. धारा 103 और 109
    3. धारा 64 और 74
    4. धारा 80 और 85
    उत्तर देखें

    उत्तर: A. 482(4) BNS 65 और 70(2) को बाहर रखती है, जो नाबालिग बालिकाओं से बलात्कार और सामूहिक बलात्कार से संबंधित हैं।

    Q3. अग्रिम जमानत को सामान्यतः समय सीमा में नहीं बाँधा जाना चाहिए, यह किस निर्णय में कहा गया?

    1. अर्नेश कुमार बनाम बिहार राज्य
    2. सुशीला अग्रवाल बनाम राज्य (दिल्ली)
    3. सतेंदर कुमार अंतिल बनाम CBI
    4. नज़ीर हुसैन बनाम असम राज्य
    उत्तर देखें

    उत्तर: B. सुशीला अग्रवाल (2020) 5 SCC 1 में संविधान पीठ ने यह कहा।

    Q4. अग्रिम जमानत का आदेश कौन दे सकता है?

    1. कोई भी मजिस्ट्रेट
    2. मुख्य न्यायिक मजिस्ट्रेट
    3. उच्च न्यायालय या सत्र न्यायालय
    4. पुलिस अधीक्षक
    उत्तर देखें

    उत्तर: C. धारा 482(1) यह अधिकार केवल उच्च न्यायालय और सत्र न्यायालय को देती है।

    Q5. 482(4) में “and” को “or” पढ़ने का निर्णय किस उच्च न्यायालय ने दिया?

    1. इलाहाबाद उच्च न्यायालय
    2. छत्तीसगढ़ उच्च न्यायालय
    3. केरल उच्च न्यायालय
    4. गौहाटी उच्च न्यायालय
    उत्तर देखें

    उत्तर: D. गौहाटी उच्च न्यायालय ने नज़ीर हुसैन बनाम असम राज्य (2025) में यह व्याख्या दी।

    स्रोत (Sources)

    • भारतीय नागरिक सुरक्षा संहिता, 2023, धारा 480, 482 और 483 (India Code)
    • गुरबख्श सिंह सिब्बिया बनाम पंजाब राज्य, (1980) 2 SCC 565
    • सुशीला अग्रवाल बनाम राज्य (दिल्ली), (2020) 5 SCC 1
    • अब्दुल हमीद बनाम उत्तर प्रदेश राज्य, इलाहाबाद उच्च न्यायालय, 2025
    • नज़ीर हुसैन बनाम असम राज्य, 2025 LiveLaw (Gau) 30

    यह पृष्ठ शिक्षा और सामान्य जानकारी के लिए है, किसी विशेष मामले के लिए कानूनी सलाह नहीं।

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    जुड़ें

  • Section 41A CrPC in BNSS: Section 35 Arrest and Notice Rules

    Section 41A CrPC in BNSS: Section 35 Arrest and Notice Rules

    Section 41 CrPC (arrest without warrant) and Section 41A CrPC (notice of appearance) have been merged into Section 35 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS), from 1 July 2024. The power to arrest is in Section 35(1), the notice of appearance is in Section 35(3) to (6), and a new Section 35(7) needs a DSP’s prior permission to arrest an infirm person or a person above sixty for an offence punishable with less than three years.

    PointPosition
    Old sectionsSection 41 and Section 41A, CrPC, 1973
    New sectionSection 35, BNSS, 2023
    SubjectWhen police may arrest without warrant; notice of appearance instead of arrest
    Who uses itPolice officer (arrest power); the person served with notice (duty to comply); an accused can rely on non-compliance at the bail or remand stage
    Which court checks itMagistrate at the remand stage; High Court in writ or under Section 528 BNSS
    Up to 7 years offencesArrest only if the officer has reason to believe and arrest is necessary for a listed purpose, with reasons recorded; otherwise notice under Section 35(3)
    New safeguardSection 35(7): offence punishable with less than 3 years, accused infirm or above 60, prior permission of an officer not below DSP rank
    Service of noticeMust be served in a prescribed mode; WhatsApp or other electronic service not valid (Satender Kumar Antil, 2025)

    What Section 35 BNSS provides

    Arrest without warrant: Section 35(1)

    Section 35(1) lists situations where police can arrest without a Magistrate’s order or warrant. The main ones are: a cognizable offence committed in the officer’s presence; a cognizable offence punishable with up to seven years, subject to clause (b); a cognizable offence punishable with more than seven years or death, on credible information; a proclaimed offender; possession of suspected stolen property; and obstructing police or escaping from lawful custody.

    Clause (b) is the heart of the arrest-protection scheme. For offences punishable with up to seven years, two things are needed. First, the officer must have reason to believe the person committed the offence. Second, arrest must be necessary for one of the stated purposes: to prevent further offences, for proper investigation, to prevent tampering with evidence, to prevent threats or inducement to witnesses, or to secure the person’s presence in court. The officer must record reasons in writing for arresting, and also for not arresting.

    Notice of appearance: Section 35(3) to (6)

    Where arrest is not required under Section 35(1), the officer must issue a notice directing the person to appear before him or at a specified place. The person must comply. So long as he complies, he cannot be arrested for that offence unless the officer records reasons for believing arrest is necessary. If he fails to comply or refuses to identify himself, the officer may arrest him, subject to any court order.

    Old and infirm persons: Section 35(7)

    This is new. For an offence punishable with less than three years, an infirm person or a person above sixty years cannot be arrested without the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police.

    What changed from Sections 41 and 41A CrPC

    • Merger: The two sections are combined. Old Section 41A is now Section 35(3) to (6).
    • New Section 35(7): The DSP-permission rule for the elderly and the infirm had no equivalent in Section 41 CrPC.
    • No electronic notice: The BNSS allows electronic modes for many steps, but the Supreme Court has held that Section 35 notices cannot be served through WhatsApp or other electronic means.

    Important case law

    Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar (2014)

    Arising from a Section 498A IPC case, the Supreme Court held that police must not arrest automatically in offences punishable with up to seven years. It directed that police use a checklist of the necessity conditions and forward it, with reasons and materials, to the Magistrate. The Magistrate must record his own satisfaction before authorising detention. Non-compliance exposes police officers to departmental action and contempt.

    Satender Kumar Antil v. CBI (2022)

    Decided on 11 July 2022, this case divided offences into categories for bail. For offences punishable with up to seven years (Category A), it held that the process should move from summons to warrants, and that non-compliance with Sections 41 and 41A by the police entitles the accused to bail.

    Satender Kumar Antil orders on electronic service (2025)

    By an order of 21 January 2025, the Supreme Court held that notices under Section 41A CrPC and Section 35 BNSS cannot be served through WhatsApp or other electronic modes. In July 2025 it rejected Haryana’s plea to modify this, because the notice affects personal liberty under Article 21.

    Common confusions

    • Notice is not immunity: A notice under Section 35(3) protects only while you comply. Missing the date can lead to arrest under Section 35(6).
    • “Above sixty” rule: Section 35(7) is limited to offences punishable with less than three years.

    Practical guide for the public

    If police contact you in an offence punishable with seven years or less, ask whether a written notice under Section 35(3) BNSS is being issued. Attend on the date with the notice and identity proof. If you cannot attend, write to the officer in advance and keep proof.

    If you are arrested despite complying, or without reasons recorded, the point can be raised before the Magistrate at first production (within 24 hours of arrest) to oppose remand and seek bail. If you are above sixty or infirm and the offence carries less than three years, ask whether DSP permission was taken.

    Exam angle

    • Section 41 + 41A CrPC = Section 35 BNSS; notice of appearance is in Section 35(3).
    • Section 35(7): less than three years offence, infirm or above sixty, DSP-level prior permission. A new provision.
    • Arnesh Kumar (2014) governs arrests in offences up to seven years; it arose from a Section 498A IPC case.
    • Satender Kumar Antil (2022) created Categories A to D for bail and linked non-compliance with 41/41A to bail.
    • Electronic service of a Section 35 notice is not valid (Supreme Court, 2025).

    Frequently asked questions

    What is the new section for 41A CrPC notice?

    The notice of appearance under old Section 41A CrPC is now in Section 35(3) to (6) of the BNSS, 2023.

    Can police arrest me after giving a Section 35 notice?

    Only if you fail to comply or refuse to identify yourself, or if the officer records reasons showing that arrest is necessary despite your compliance.

    Can police send a Section 35 notice on WhatsApp?

    No. The Supreme Court in Satender Kumar Antil (orders of January and July 2025) held that electronic service of these notices is not valid.

    Can a person above 60 years be arrested?

    Yes, but if the offence is punishable with less than three years, police need the prior permission of an officer not below DSP rank under Section 35(7) BNSS.

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    Quick quiz

    Q1. The notice of appearance under old Section 41A CrPC is now found in:

    1. Section 35(1) BNSS
    2. Section 36 BNSS
    3. Section 35(3) BNSS
    4. Section 41 BNSS
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Section 35(3) to (6) BNSS contain the notice of appearance scheme of old Section 41A.

    Q2. Under Section 35(7) BNSS, whose prior permission is needed to arrest an infirm person for an offence punishable with less than three years?

    1. An officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police
    2. The Judicial Magistrate
    3. The Superintendent of Police only
    4. The Public Prosecutor
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Permission of an officer not below DSP rank is required.

    Q3. Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar (2014) arose from an accusation under which IPC section?

    1. Section 302
    2. Section 420
    3. Section 376
    4. Section 498A
    Show answer

    Answer: D. It was a Section 498A IPC (cruelty) case, and its directions apply to all offences punishable with up to seven years.

    Q4. Which statement on service of a Section 35 BNSS notice is correct?

    1. WhatsApp service is valid under Section 530
    2. Electronic service is not a valid mode for this notice
    3. Email service is mandatory
    4. Oral intimation is sufficient
    Show answer

    Answer: B. The Supreme Court held that WhatsApp and other electronic modes cannot replace the prescribed modes of service.

    Q5. For an offence punishable with up to seven years, Section 35(1)(b) requires the police officer to record reasons:

    1. Only when he arrests
    2. Only when he does not arrest
    3. Both when he arrests and when he does not arrest
    4. Never; reasons are recorded by the Magistrate
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Reasons must be recorded in writing for making the arrest and, under the proviso, for not making it.

    Sources

    • Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023: Section 35
    • Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973: Sections 41 and 41A
    • Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar, (2014) 8 SCC 273
    • Satender Kumar Antil v. CBI, Supreme Court, 11 July 2022, and orders of 21 January 2025 and July 2025

    This page is for education and general information, not legal advice for a specific case.

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  • Section 392 and 395 IPC in BNS: Robbery 309, Dacoity 310

    Section 392 and 395 IPC in BNS: Robbery 309, Dacoity 310

    Section 392 IPC (punishment for robbery) is now Section 309(4) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS), and Section 395 IPC (punishment for dacoity) is now Section 310(2) BNS. Robbery is defined in Section 309 and dacoity in Section 310. The punishments are largely the same as before, with one important change for dacoity with murder.

    PointRobberyDacoity
    Old section390 (definition), 392 (punishment)391 (definition), 395 (punishment)
    New section309(1) to (3) definition, 309(4) punishment310(1) definition, 310(2) punishment
    PunishmentRigorous imprisonment up to 10 years and fine; up to 14 years if on a highway between sunset and sunriseLife imprisonment, or rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years, and fine
    CognizableYesYes
    BailableNoNo
    CompoundableNoNo
    Triable byMagistrate of the first classCourt of Session

    Robbery under Section 309 BNS

    Section 309(1) says that in all robbery there is either theft or extortion. Robbery is therefore an aggravated form of one of these two offences.

    When theft becomes robbery: Section 309(2)

    Theft becomes robbery if, in order to commit the theft, while committing it, or while carrying away or attempting to carry away the stolen property, the offender voluntarily causes or attempts to cause death, hurt or wrongful restraint, or fear of instant death, instant hurt or instant wrongful restraint. The violence must be for the purpose of the theft, not an unrelated scuffle.

    When extortion becomes robbery: Section 309(3)

    Extortion becomes robbery if the offender is in the presence of the victim, puts the victim in fear of instant death, instant hurt or instant wrongful restraint, and by that fear induces the victim to deliver the property then and there.

    Punishments within Section 309

    • 309(4): robbery, rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years and fine; if committed on a highway between sunset and sunrise, up to 14 years (old 392).
    • 309(5): attempt to commit robbery, rigorous imprisonment up to 7 years and fine (old 393).
    • 309(6): voluntarily causing hurt while committing or attempting robbery, imprisonment for life or rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years and fine. This applies to the person who causes hurt and to every other person jointly concerned (old 394).

    Dacoity under Section 310 BNS

    When five or more persons conjointly commit or attempt to commit robbery, or where the persons committing or attempting it and those present and aiding it together number five or more, every such person commits dacoity. The number five is the defining feature.

    • 310(2): dacoity, life imprisonment or rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years and fine (old 395).
    • 310(3): dacoity with murder, where any one of the five or more commits murder in the course of dacoity: every one of them is punishable with death, life imprisonment or rigorous imprisonment of not less than 10 years, and fine (old 396).
    • 310(4): preparation to commit dacoity, rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years and fine (old 399).
    • 310(5): being one of five or more persons assembled to commit dacoity, rigorous imprisonment up to 7 years and fine (old 402).
    • 310(6): belonging to a gang of persons associated for habitually committing dacoity, life imprisonment or rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years and fine (old 400).

    Full mapping: old IPC to new BNS

    IPCBNSSubject
    390309(1), (2), (3)Robbery defined
    391310(1)Dacoity defined
    392309(4)Punishment for robbery
    393309(5)Attempt to commit robbery
    394309(6)Hurt in committing robbery
    395310(2)Punishment for dacoity
    396310(3)Dacoity with murder
    397311Robbery or dacoity with attempt to cause death or grievous hurt, or use of deadly weapon: minimum 7 years
    398312Attempt at robbery or dacoity when armed with deadly weapon: minimum 7 years
    399310(4)Preparation for dacoity
    400310(6)Belonging to a gang of dacoits
    401313Belonging to a gang of thieves or robbers: rigorous imprisonment up to 7 years and fine
    402310(5)Assembling for dacoity

    What changed from the IPC

    • Dacoity with murder: under Section 396 IPC, the third option was rigorous imprisonment that “may extend to ten years”. Section 310(3) BNS makes it rigorous imprisonment “not less than ten years”. The ceiling became a floor, so a sentence below ten years is no longer possible.
    • Consolidation: thirteen IPC sections (390 to 402) are now Sections 309 to 313.
    • New companion offences: the BNS also introduced Section 304 (snatching) and Section 112 (petty organised crime). Snatching was earlier prosecuted as theft or robbery depending on the facts.
    • Other punishments: the punishments for robbery, attempt, hurt in robbery, dacoity, preparation, assembling and gang membership are unchanged in substance.

    Important case law

    Raj Kumar alias Raju v. State of Uttaranchal (2008) 11 SCC 709

    For a dacoity conviction, the court must find that five or more persons took part. If five or more were clearly involved but some could not be identified, even fewer than five, or one, can be convicted. Without that finding, fewer than five persons cannot be convicted of dacoity.

    Phool Kumar v. Delhi Administration (1975) 1 SCC 797

    For the old Section 397 (now Section 311), the offender “uses” a deadly weapon even when he only displays it to frighten the victim. Actual striking is not needed.

    Ashfaq v. State (NCT of Delhi) (2004) 3 SCC 116

    The Court relied on Phool Kumar and held that being armed with a deadly weapon within the victim’s sight, enough to create terror, satisfies the requirement. A knife can be a deadly weapon for this purpose.

    Common confusions

    Robbery vs dacoity

    The only structural difference is the number of persons. Fewer than five: robbery. Five or more (counting those present and aiding): dacoity.

    Robbery vs snatching

    Snatching under Section 304 BNS is sudden, quick or forcible seizure of movable property. If the offender also causes or attempts hurt or wrongful restraint, or creates instant fear, it moves into robbery under Section 309.

    Hurt in robbery: who is liable

    Under Section 309(6), the person who causes hurt and every person jointly concerned in the robbery are liable. Under Section 311, the minimum seven year sentence applies to the offender who actually uses the weapon or causes the grievous hurt.

    For the general public: what to do

    • Go to the nearest police station or dial 112 immediately. Robbery and dacoity are cognizable, so an FIR must be registered. A zero FIR can be lodged at any station.
    • Note descriptions of the persons, vehicles, direction of escape and time. Do not disturb the scene.
    • Block stolen cards and SIMs at once and keep the reference numbers. For a stolen phone, report on the CEIR portal (ceir.gov.in) with the FIR copy.
    • Get a medical examination done if you were hurt; it supports charges under Section 309(6) or 311.
    • Collect a free copy of the FIR, which the BNSS entitles you to.

    Exam angle

    • 392 IPC = 309(4); 395 IPC = 310(2); 397 = 311; 401 = 313.
    • Section 310(3): “not less than ten years” replaced “may extend to ten years”. A favourite change question.
    • Highway robbery between sunset and sunrise: up to 14 years under Section 309(4).
    • Robbery is triable by a Magistrate of the first class; dacoity by the Court of Session.
    • Raj Kumar (2008): fewer than five can be convicted only if the court finds five or more participated.

    Frequently asked questions

    What is the new section for 392 IPC?

    Section 392 IPC is now Section 309(4) BNS. It punishes robbery with rigorous imprisonment up to ten years and fine, extendable to fourteen years for highway robbery at night.

    What is the new section for 395 IPC?

    Section 395 IPC is now Section 310(2) BNS, with life imprisonment or rigorous imprisonment up to ten years and fine.

    Is robbery bailable under BNS?

    No. Robbery under Section 309 and dacoity under Section 310 are cognizable and non-bailable, so bail is at the court’s discretion.

    What is the new section for 397 IPC?

    Section 397 IPC is now Section 311 BNS, which prescribes a minimum of seven years when the offender uses a deadly weapon, causes grievous hurt, or attempts death or grievous hurt during robbery or dacoity.

    How many people are needed for dacoity?

    Five or more persons, counting those who commit or attempt the robbery and those present and aiding it.

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    Quick quiz

    Q1. Section 395 IPC (punishment for dacoity) is now:

    1. Section 309(4) BNS
    2. Section 311 BNS
    3. Section 310(2) BNS
    4. Section 313 BNS
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Dacoity is defined in Section 310(1) and punished under Section 310(2).

    Q2. Robbery on a highway between sunset and sunrise is punishable under Section 309(4) BNS with rigorous imprisonment up to:

    1. 14 years
    2. 10 years
    3. 7 years
    4. life
    Show answer

    Answer: A. The ordinary maximum is ten years, rising to fourteen for night highway robbery.

    Q3. What change did Section 310(3) BNS make to the old Section 396 IPC?

    1. Removed the death penalty
    2. Made the rigorous imprisonment option “not less than ten years”
    3. Made it bailable
    4. Reduced the number of persons to three
    Show answer

    Answer: B. The IPC allowed rigorous imprisonment up to ten years; the BNS fixes ten years as the minimum.

    Q4. Belonging to a gang of persons habitually committing theft or robbery (not dacoity) falls under:

    1. Section 310(6) BNS
    2. Section 312 BNS
    3. Section 111 BNS
    4. Section 313 BNS
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Section 313 BNS replaces Section 401 IPC; Section 310(6) is for gangs of dacoits.

    Q5. Which court tries dacoity under Section 310(2) BNS?

    1. Any Magistrate
    2. Magistrate of the first class
    3. Court of Session
    4. Special Court only
    Show answer

    Answer: C. The BNSS First Schedule makes dacoity triable by the Court of Session, while robbery is triable by a first class Magistrate.

    Sources

    • Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, Sections 309 to 313 (India Code)
    • Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, First Schedule
    • Raj Kumar alias Raju v. State of Uttaranchal (2008) 11 SCC 709
    • Phool Kumar v. Delhi Administration (1975) 1 SCC 797; Ashfaq v. State (NCT of Delhi) (2004) 3 SCC 116

    This page is for education and general information, not legal advice for a specific case.

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